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Technical Round Materials-Biotechnology-Free Download

Technical Round Materials-Biotechnology-Free Download

  • What is biotechnology?
  • Give examples of application of biotech for welfare of mankind.
  • What is cloning?
  • Is cloning ethical?
  • Name some cloned animals.
  • What is a stem cell?
  • What are the applications of stem cell technology?
  • Can you name an Indian corporate group that is into stem cell research?
  • Why does a cell multiply?
  • What are bacteria?
  • What are fungi?
  • What is the difference between fungi and bacteria?
  • What is a virus?
  • Why is virus non-living?
  • What is the difference between bacteria and virus?
  • What are the major biotech companies in India?
  • What is the use of biotech in agriculture and dairy industries?
  • What is a protein?
  • Is nucleic acid a protein?
  • What is a gene?
  • Who coined the term 'gene'?
  • What is gene amplification?
  • What is gene bank?
  • What is gene pool?
  • What is DNA?
  • What is DNA made of?
  • What are the four nitrogenous bases in DNA?
  • What is RNA?
  • How does DNA duplicate itself?
  • What is a DNA chip?
  • What is terminator gene technology?
  • What is a chromosome?
  • What do you know about the Human Genome Project?
  • What are the applications of Human Genome in pharmaceuticals?
  • What is genetic engineering?
  • What is hybridisation?
  • What is the difference between genetic engineering and hybridisation?
  • What are amino acids?
  • What is the difference between physical chemistry and organic chemistry?
  • Name some inheritance diseases.
  • Is haemophilia an inheritance disease?
  • What is the contribution of Watson and Crick?
  • What is mitosis?
  • What is meiosis?

What is agricultural biotechnology?
Agricultural biotechnology is an advanced technology that allows plant breeders to make precise genetic changes to impart beneficial traits to the crop plants we rely on for food and fiber.

For centuries farmers and plant breeders have labored to improve crop plants. Traditional breeding methods include selecting and sowing the seeds from the strongest, most desirable plants to produce the next generation of crops. By selecting and breeding plants with characteristics such as higher yield, resistance to pests and hardiness, early farmers dramatically changed the genetic make-up of crop plants long before the science of genetics was understood. As a result, most of today's crop plants bear little resemblance to their wild ancestors.

The tools of modern biotechnology allow plant breeders to select genes that produce beneficial traits and move them from one organism to another. This process is far more precise and selective than crossbreeding, which involves the transfer of tens of thousands of genes, and provided plant developers with a more detailed knowledge of the changes being made.

The ability to introduce genetic material from other plants and organisms opens up a world of possibilities to benefit food production. As an example, "Bt" crops that are protected against insect damage contain selected genes found in the common soil bacteria, Bacillus thuringiensis. The Bt genes contain information that the plant uses to produce a protein toxic to the larvae of certain plant pests but is safe for humans, animals and other insects. Pest-protected Bt plants stop these insects from eating and destroying the plant, which improves yields and reduces the need for pesticide applications, saving the farmer time and money. Organic farmers use this same Bt to protect their crops from insects.

Is biotechnology fundamentally different from other breeding techniques, and does it pose unacceptable risks?
No. Biotechnology is a refinement of breeding techniques that have been used to improve plants for thousands of years. The 20th century, in particular, saw the development and application of many new techniques to transfer genes between related and even unrelated species for crop improvement. Biotechnology is the latest in a long line of increasingly powerful tools for enhancing crops.

Many scientific groups have concluded that the risks associated with crop plants developed using biotechnology are the same as those for similar varieties developed using traditional breeding methods. In a 1987 report, the National Academy of Sciences (part of what is now called the National Academies) determined that "There is no evidence that unique hazards exist either in the use of r-DNA techniques or in transfer of genes between unrelated organisms. The risks associated with the introduction of r-DNA organisms are the same in kind as those associated with the introduction in the environment of unmodified organisms and organisms modified by other genetic techniques." Subsequent reports by the National Academies and other scientific bodies have reaffirmed this view. This scientific consensus continues to inform the U.S. regulatory policy, which focuses primarily on the characteristics of the new crop variety, not the method used to produce it.

Are crops developed using biotechnology as safe for the environment as crops developed using traditional breeding practices?
Yes. Extensive scientific evaluation worldwide has not found any examples of ecological damage from biotechnology crops. Many published studies-from the National Academies, the Organization for Economic Development and Cooperation, the Council on Agricultural Science and Technology, and others-have arrived at the same conclusion: Biotechnology-derived crops pose no unique risks to the environment compared with similar crops produced using traditional techniques.

To ensure that the new plant is safe for the environment, extensive field-testing is conducted under USDA and EPA oversight. To date, there have been no instances of a biotechnology-derived plant approved for field-testing either creating an environmental hazard or exhibiting any unpredictable behavior compared with similar crops modified using traditional methods.

Agricultural biotechnology has tremendous potential to reduce the environmental impact of farming. Current crops designed to resist pests and tolerate herbicides have already cut chemical usage on farms significantly, and the herbicide-tolerance trait promotes conservation agricultural practices like no-tillage farming that reduce soil erosion, prevent water loss, and even limit release of greenhouse gases.

Future crops designed to tolerate environmental stresses, such as salty or toxic soils, drought, and freezing temperatures, will make agriculture more efficient and sustainable by producing more food and fiber on less land. These and other traits also will allow farmers to bring currently nonarable land into production, reducing the pressure to convert threatened ecosystems, such as rainforests, to farmland. Biotechnology can also be used to produce renewable plant-based energy and industrial products and biological agents to clean up contaminated soils.

Are foods produced using biotechnology as safe to eat as foods produced using traditional breeding practices?
Yes. For over two decades, the products of biotechnology have been assessed for safety using science-based regulatory and nonregulatory mechanisms developed over the last half century for all crop plants. Biotechnology plants and foods are among the most tested in history.

A number of prestigious U.S. and international scientific bodies - such as the U.S. National Academies of Science, the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the World Health Organization, the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the American Medical Association (AMA), the American Dietetic Association, the Council on Agricultural Science and Technology (CAST), the Institute for Food Technologists, the International Council for Science (ICSU) and the British Medical Association – have determined that biotech crops are as safe as similar crops improved through traditional and organic breeding methods. A 2004 report by the National Academies, for example, found that biotech crops do not pose any more health risks than do crops created by other techniques and that food safety evaluations should be based on the resulting food product, not the technique used to create it."

Indeed, because scientists know more about the changes being made using biotechnology, these foods may be even safer than conventional foods. The precision of biotechnology puts plant developers and regulators are in a better position to address safety that cannot be addressed for products of conventional breeding, which involves the uncontrolled crossing of tens of thousands of uncharacterized genes.

Federal regulatory agencies also ensure the safety of biotechnology foods. To date, no approved biotechnology food has harmed human health.

Are the products of agricultural biotechnology regulated?
Yes. The U.S. regulatory system, which enjoys a high degree of public confidence, employs rigorous scientific reviews within a transparent decision-making framework open to public participation. This regulatory approach provides full access to documents on which decisions are based and is carried out completely in the public eye as required by law. The science-based U.S. regulatory system has helped ensure that biotechnology products are safe for producers, consumers, and the environment.

Biotechnology products in the United States are regulated according to a system, the Coordinated Framework, established by the Office of Science and Technology Policy in 1986. Deriving its mandate from existing laws regulating food safety and agriculture, the Coordinated Framework assigns lead responsibility for biotechnology products to the appropriate regulatory agency and sets out principles for cooperative reviews in areas where responsibilities or authorities overlap. The regulation of agricultural biotechnology products is handled by three agencies:

  • U.S. Department of Agriculture Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service - APHIS oversees the field-testing of biotechnology-derived plants as "regulated articles" to ensure that the environment is protected. A petition for nonregulated status must be granted by APHIS prior to commercial growth and sale of any bioengineered crop.
  • The Environmental Protection Agency - The EPA is responsible for ensuring that pest-resistant biotech varieties are safe to grow and consume. It regulates environmental exposure to these crops to ensure there are no adverse effects to the environment or any beneficial, nontargeted insects and other organisms. The agency also regulates bioengineered microorganisms under the Toxic Substances Control Act.
  • Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Nutrition - The FDA imposes on foods developed through biotechnology the same regulatory requirements FDA uses to safeguard all foods in the marketplace. The FDA has both premarket and postmarket authority to regulate the safety and labeling of all foods and animal feed. Foods from biotechnology are judged on their individual safety and nutrition, not the methods used to produce them. Under federal law, the producer of a food has the legal obligation to ensure its safety to consumers, and FDA may pull from the market any foods found to be unsafe. Since 1992, FDA has used a voluntary review process for biotechnology foods. Over 50 such products have been reviewed, and none has been found to pose a safety concern. To improve consumer confidence, proposed rules issued by FDA in 2001 would make premarket review of biotech foods mandatory.

Do foods produced using biotechnology require special labeling?
No. The FDA applies the same labeling standards to foods produced through biotechnology that are applied to all foods produced using traditional methods. Federal law requires labeling of a new food to inform consumers when there are significant changes in nutrition, safety or usage, or if the common name of the food no longer applies.

The FDA's evaluation of a biotechnology food focuses on its characteristics, not the method used to develop it. A new biotechnology food that is "substantially equivalent"-that is, has a similar composition and nutritional value-to similar varieties currently on the market would not require a special label because it would not provide the consumer with material information on the new food's safety or nutritional value.

However, the FDA may require extensive premarket testing requirements and special labeling if the source of the genetic change has not been previously consumed in the diet or is from a common allergen. For example, any product that used a gene from a peanut, which is a potential allergen, would be subject to testing and labeling requirements.

Food manufacturers are free to make voluntary claims about whether their products contain biotechnology ingredients or not, and these must be truthful, clear, and not misleading. In January 2001, the FDA issued draft guidance for food manufacturers who wish to use voluntary labels.

The FDA's labeling policy has received broad scientific and industry support. For example, the American Medical Association noted that "there is no scientific justification for special labeling of genetically modified foods, as a class, and that voluntary labeling is without value unless it is accompanied by focused consumer education."

The biotechnology industry supports labels that convey accurate and useful information.

Can foods developed using biotechnology cause food allergies?
Developers of foods enhanced through biotechnology are mindful of the possibility, albeit unlikely, of introducing an allergen into that food. FDA regulations require companies that use genes from a known allergenic source to assume that they will produce an allergen and to perform allergenicity tests on the food product. Approximately 90 percent of food-related allergies are linked to proteins found in tree nuts, peanuts, soybeans, milk, eggs, fish, crustaceans, and wheat. Knowing this, agricultural biotechnology companies have avoided using genetic material from these foods in developing biotechnology products.

In addition, all foods enhanced through biotechnology are tested for allergenicity in comparison to its conventional counterpart before being approved for market by the FDA. According to FDA labeling guidelines, products produced through biotechnology that contain a likely allergen require a label informing consumers of this fact.

To date, no allergic reactions have been attributed to any food product of biotechnology. In fact, advanced techniques are being used to remove allergens from certain foods. Hypoallergenic rice and soybeans have already been developed, and researchers are at work on wheat. The removal of allergens from foods will open up a broader range of products for those with food allergies to enjoy.

What are examples of agricultural biotechnology products currently available?
The first effort at marketing a crop food modified through biotechnology occurred in the 1989, when Calgene Corporation sought approval for its Flavr Savr tomato, engineered to provide extended shelf life. Since then, there have been a number of crops developed offering a wide variety of enhanced traits. Crops designed to resist insect and viral pest or tolerate broad-spectrum herbicides account for most of the biotechnology crops available commercially.

Bt corn, potato, and cotton incorporate select genes from the widely used biological control agent Bacillus thuringiensis to resist the European corn borer, Colorado potato beetle and pink boll worm, respectively. Bt sprays have been used to combat these pests for many years. The Bt genes allow the crop to produce the pesticide within the plant, eliminating the need to spray for these pests.

Important commercial plants that have been modified to resist viral infection include potato, squash, cucumber, watermelon, and papaya, among others. These plants resist viruses through a mechanism known as cross-protection, which is somewhat similar to immunization. Farmers growing these plants are able to reduce pesticide applications to control virus-carrying insects.

Soybean, corn, canola and other crop plants have been modified to tolerate safe, broad-spectrum herbicides. Herbicide tolerance allows farmers to use weed controls more selectively. Rather than applying herbicide before planting, farmers can wait until after the crop emerges to apply herbicides only where and in the quantities needed.

Likely advances include a promising array of products that will offer improved yields, enhanced nutrition, medicinal properties and vaccines, healthier cooking oils, extended shelf life, renewable resources and industrial feedstocks, and other desirable products. These new varieties of plants could open up lucrative new markets to farmers and provide enhanced food products to consumers.

Have farmers adopted new crop varieties developed using biotechnology?
Yes. Farmers have embraced crops enhanced through biotechnology because they provide value and solve real, sometimes previously intractable, problems. U.S. farmers, in particular, have taken advantage of this new technology. USDA has estimated that in 2004, 45 percent of the corn (36.4 million acres), 76 percent of the cotton (10.4 million acres), and 85 percent of the soybeans (63.5 million acres) planted were biotech varieties. This is a remarkable level of market penetration considering that these crops were only introduced in the mid-1990s. Today, about 60 to 70 percent of the processed foods available in U.S. grocery stores contain some ingredients or oils derived from biotech crops.

Worldwide, according to the International Service for the Acquisition of Agri-biotech Applications (ISAAA), biotech crops were grown on more than 167 million acres in 2003 by 7 million farmers in 18 countries. A total of 85 percent of growers using biotech crops are small farmers in developing countries, which represents nearly one-third of the global biotech crop area. While the United States grew more than 105 million acres of biotech crops in 2003, Argentina and China each grew more than 10 million acres of biotech crops that same year; China and Brazil each grew more than 5 million acres of biotech crops in 2003.

Adoption throughout the rest of the world has been slower. The United States is fortunate in that it had a science-based regulatory policy in place to accommodate the production and use of new biotechnology varieties. As acceptance of biotechnology grows worldwide, new varieties of important staple crops, such as rice, will be readily adopted overseas.

Does biotechnology benefit America's agricultural economy?
Yes. Farmers have adopted biotechnology products because they deliver value by reducing operating and input expenses.

Biotechnology-derived varieties of pest-protected corn, cotton, and potatoes and herbicide-tolerant soybean have significantly reduced pesticide and herbicide use, boosted yields, and saved growers tens of millions of dollars. A recent study by the National Center for Food and Agriculture Policy (NCFAP) found that six biotech crops – canola, corn, cotton, papaya, soybean and squash – increased grower incomes by an additional $1.9 billion, boosted crop yields by 5.3 billion pounds and reduced pesticide use by 46.4 million pounds in 2003. These savings came from reduced inputs including time, labor, and wear and tear on farm equipment.

A study by University of Minnesota professor C. Ford Runge found that four commercial biotech crops – corn, soybeans, cotton and canola – represented $20 billion in value in the United States in 2002, half of the total $40 billion value of the four crops. The study also found that the economic impact of plant biotechnology extends beyond the farm gate and in individual states active in biotech research and development. At least 41 of the 50 states had some type of biotech initiatives in 2001, and those that have readily adopted and invested in biotechnology are reaping the greatest economic rewards. Corn Belt states with higher adoption levels of biotech crops have a greater number of agriculture and food science jobs than those with lower levels of adoption. Additionally, the study found that these new jobs typically pay 1.5 to 2 times the average wage of workers in these states, mostly because these types of jobs require at least a Bachelor’s and Master’s degree, and sometimes a doctoral degree. Crop biotech also demands a variety of other high-tech, high-paying jobs, such as food scientists, microbiologists, biochemists and biophysicists.

Does pest-protected Bt corn harm monarch butterflies?
No. Bt crops incorporate genes from the common soil microbe Bacillus thuringiensis, which allows them to produce proteins (endotoxins) that protect them from certain insect pests. The protein expressed in Bt corn has long been known to be toxic to the caterpillars of butterflies, including the monarch. Laboratory studies confirming this led some outside the scientific community to claim that Bt corn posed a severe threat to the monarch.

Subsequent field studies published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences demonstrate that the threat to monarch populations from Bt corn is negligible. Indeed, some of the evidence suggests that Bt corn could greatly benefit monarch butterfly survival by reducing pesticide use. Scientific evidence gathered by the EPA also demonstrates that Bt corn does not harm monarch butterfly populations. Given this scientific consensus, in October 2000 EPA agreed to renew the registration for Bt crops for an additional seven years.

Has gene flow occurred between Bt corn and landraces in Mexico, and does this threaten natural biodiversity?
A November 2001 article in the journal Nature claimed that genetic material from Bt corn had found its way into traditional landraces in Mexico. In 1998, Mexico instituted a ban on growing corn enhanced through biotechnology.

Critiques of this study identified flawed methodology and interpretation, unprecedented assertions, and a failure to confirm results. As a result, the editors of Nature published an editorial note, saying, "In light of these discussions and the diverse advice received, Nature has concluded that the evidence available is not sufficient to justify the publication of the original paper." A review by the editors of Transgenic Research also concluded that "no credible scientific is presented in the paper to support claims made by the authors that gene flow between transgenic maize and traditional maize landraces has taken place."

Testing by the International Maize and Wheat Improvement Center has not found any trace of the promoters associated with Bt corn. However, sampling and analysis performed by Mexico's National Institute of Ecology indicated the presence of transgenes in landraces in two states, but even these results were the subject of controversy. Further testing may confirm these results, but to date, there is little reason to believe that large-scale gene flow has occurred or that is has harmed the biodiversity of landraces, which themselves have been genetically manipulated by Mexican farmers for generations.

What is "terminator" technology?
Terminator technology refers to research of seeds/plants that produce sterile seeds. While research of this technology has been conducted in conjunction with the USDA, no agricultural biotechnology company currently uses this technology. In the future, this technology could be used to prevent any gene flow between biotechnology and traditional crops.

Can biotechnology play a beneficial role in aquaculture?
Yes. Using biotechnology, developments in the field of aquaculture will allow a high-quality source of food to be brought to market more quickly, reduce the price to consumers, and eliminate the demand to overfish wild stocks. For example, AquaAdvantage® salmon, developed by Aqua Bounty Farms, can grow from egg to market size (6 to 10 pounds) in 12 to 18 months. Fish produced using conventional fish-breeding techniques normally require two to three years.

Federal regulatory agencies will require rigorous testing for food and environmental safety. New biotechnology salmon varieties could make fish farming more sustainable, decrease overfishing of wild salmon and lower consumer costs. As sterile females are used, there is little risk to wild stocks should these fish escape to the wild.

Aqua Bounty expects to introduce the AquaAdvantage® salmon within two to three years to a public for whom salmon is an increasingly popular food.

Can agriculture biotechnology assist in meeting the food demands of a growing global population?
Yes. Agricultural biotechnology can be a key element in the fight against hunger and malnutrition in the developing world.

Today, an estimated 800 million people do not have access to sufficient supplies of food. By 2030, the global population is expected to reach, if not exceed, 8 billion people, putting a further strain on food supplies. But while world population is expected to grow rapidly, particularly in developing countries, the amount of available agricultural land is limited. Only 10 percent of the world's land surface is arable, and overfarming and soil erosion are growing problems in some areas.

To overcome these dynamics, farmers will need to find ways to grow more food using less land. The National Academies and six other international scientific organizations recently issued a report discussing the role of biotechnology in meeting global food needs. It concluded that, "GM technology, coupled with important developments in other areas, should be used to increase the production of main food staples, improve the efficiency of production, reduce the environmental impact of agriculture, and provide access to food for small-scale farmers." Other groups-including the International Food Policy Research Institute, Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research, International Service for the Acquisition of Agri-biotech Applications, Pontifical Academy of Sciences and Nuffield Council on Bioethics-have issued similar findings.

Biotechnology already is beginning to make a contribution. For example:

  • "Golden rice," enriched with beta carotene, will help combat vitamin-A deficiency, a major cause of blindness in the developing world. (A similar strain of rice has been enriched with iron to ward off anemia.). A "golden mustard" also may yield provitamin A-enriched cooking oil.
  • New varieties of corn, sorghum and wheat are being developed to provide more lysine, an important dietary protein.
  • "Pharma foods" are being developed that may help prevent or cure diseases such as cholera and diarrhea, leading causes of infant mortality in developing countries.
  • Plants that resist viral pests, such as a new variety of African sweet potato that wards off the feathery mottle virus, can improve yields of important staple crops. Viral resistance also is being imparted to high-value cucurbit crops grown throughout Southeast Asia.
  • Foods with extended shelf lives can reduce food losses caused by spoilage.
  • Plants that resist toxic or salty soils will increase the areas available for farming in many regions of the world.

These are just a few examples of what biotechnology can do to improve the lives of people in the developing world. While not a total solution, biotechnology can play an important role in helping developing countries achieve food security.

What is "golden rice" and can it be an effective means to prevent vitamin deficiency?
Vitamin-A deficiency is a serious condition that can lead to blindness and increase susceptibility to infectious agents. It affects an estimated 200 million people, primarily in developing countries where rice is a dietary staple.

Using biotechnology techniques, scientists have developed a new strain of rice, called golden rice, that naturally produces beta-carotene, the precursor to vitamin A. Golden rice can provide enough beta-carotene to make up vitamin-A deficiencies in the diets of poor children, and it can also increase the amount of vitamin A in breast milk, an important source of nutrition for infants. Further, scientists has enriched the same strain of rice with additional iron to combat anemia, which affect hundreds of millions of the world's poor.

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What are the international trade issues affecting biotechnology food products?
While the science has repeatedly demonstrated that foods produced through biotechnology are as safe as conventional foods, approval of these foods in some overseas markets has been slow in coming. Despite their growing acceptance and history of safe use in the United States, certain countries-including the United Kingdom, France and other members of the European Union-have not yet approved these crops to be planted or purchased from another country.

Many variables have worked to slow the acceptance of biotech crops. For instance, Europeans have a strong cultural tie to food and resist any perceived change. Also, many countries have not enjoyed a reliable regulatory environment like that in the United States. Outbreaks of mad cow and hoof-and-mouth diseases in the United Kingdom, contaminated soft drinks in Belgium and HIV-tainted blood supplies in France are just some of the mishaps that have made citizens in other nations, especially Europe, wary of any government agency's claims that a new technology is safe. This has led some countries to reject our risk-based approach and adopt the precautionary principle, which could delay a new technology on the basis of improbable hypothetical risks. And in some instances, ostensible concern over biotechnology is being used to promote protectionist policies that aim to shut out American products from overseas markets in direct contradiction to World Trade Organization guidelines.

What are the issues regarding intellectual property and agricultural biotechnology?
All new crop varieties that meet the criteria of the federal Plant Variety Protection Act-whether produced by conventional means or biotechnology-are eligible for intellectual property rights protection. To receive protection, the new variety must be distinct from other varieties and genetically uniform and stable through successive generations. The length of protection is 20 years for most crop plants.

Researching and bringing a plant biotechnology product to market takes several years and tens of millions of dollars. As with any industry that requires such extraordinary investment, it is crucial that biotechnology companies can recoup the initial investment and continue their research and development of new products that benefit the public. Intellectual property rights also enable companies to do a better job of ensuring that their products are used responsibly.

? Question 1. Do You Know How The Dose For Children Is Being Estimated Based On Preclinical Data?

Answer :

There are a number of ways of estimating children's doses from preclinical (adult) data - often depends on the therapeutic index of the drug in question (the wider the therapeutic window the less accurate the child's dose needs to be). Sometimes straight weight-basis i.e. 7kg child gets 1/10 dose of 70kg adult.
More accurate (so they say) is a dose based on body surface area (child's surface area is greater in proportion to its body weight than an adult is). There are normograms to calculate surface area from weight and height of child.
All of these may be wrong if clearance of drug in child is significantly different from adult e.g. different metabolism or different route of clearance.

? Question 2. What Is The Definition Of “biomedical”? What Topics Cover The Study Of Biomedical Sciences?

Answer :

The term "biomedical" covers a vast range of subjects - everything that relates biology to medicine. This can range from the obvious like Anatomy, Biochemistry, Physiology, Microbiology, Pharmacology, Genetics to the less obvious like Botany (most drugs were originally derived from plants and, thus, these is a big science called Phytopharmacology).

? Question 3. Is Phenoxyethanol Harmful?

Answer :

Phenoxyethanol is harmful and can be absorbed through the skin - official sites for toxicity data, however, show little toxicity in man and some toxicity (irritation) with high doses in animals. Phenoxyethanol is in cosmetics as a bactericide (kills bacteria).

? Question 4. Why Is Buprenorphine Less Addictive Than Other Opioids (like Fentanyl) - Is It Explainable By Its Strength Of Binding To The Common Receptor, Or?

Answer :

Buprenorphine is what is referred to as a partial agonist - i.e. it binds to the receptor but even at its maximum cannot give as much of an effect as a full agonist (such as morphine) - it is, thus, also a partial antagonist (partially inhibits the actions of full agonists).
As addiction is likely to be linked to strength of the effect of the drug, buprenorphine has less effect and, therefore, less addiction.

? Question 5. How Is The Concentration Of Drugs In Human Plasma Defined?

Answer :

Some drugs bind extensively to plasma proteins (Warfarin binds 99%) whereas others have virtually no binding.
Extraction depends on the type of drug - there are different standard techniques for acidic, basic, and neutral drugs - and, indeed, some drugs need specific extraction techniques.
It is important for you doing bioequivalence studies to know exactly the proportion of drug extracted but such controls are again specific for each drug and use specific marker compounds.

? Question 6. How Is The Calculation Derived For A Drug To Be Bio Equivalent With Other? On Which Base The Limit Is Fixed As 80-120% For A Drug To Be Bio Equivalent. What Is Meant By 90% Confidential Interval?

Answer :

To be "bioequivalent" two preparations or drugs need to give the same biological effect.
The usual "experimental error" put on this is 20% - thus, 80-120% is considered "bioequivalent.”
90 percentage confidence interval means that statistically it is 90% certain that the results are equivalent.

? Question 7. When We Do Liquid Extraction, What Is The Effect Of Adding 10%acid Or Any Base And How Do We Know Which Has To Be Added And Up To Which Concentration Or Micro Litre Level Can We Add Such Buffers? If Any Gel Formation Occurs At The Time Of Extraction, How Will It Affect The Analysis? Shall We Continue The Extraction With The Same Or Should We Drop That Method?

Answer :

The idea of adding acid/base is to change the lipid (and therefore organic solvent) solubility of the components you want to extract.
For example, a fatty acid is more soluble in water as a salt (and, thus, in basic conditions) whereas it is largely insoluble in water in its uncharged state (in acid conditions). So adding acid to the solution of fatty acid salt in water will render it water-insoluble and, thus, move it from the water to the organic solvent.
This is a standard extraction technique for organic acids and bases. Also, note that exact concentrations of acid/base need to be calibrated for each extraction.
Gel formation is difficult to deal with, as you cannot be sure of the extraction (difficult to mix and separate). We would suggest changing the method unless you can show a decent extraction or the description of the method says to expect a gel formation.

? Question 8. What Are High Affinity Receptors?

Answer :

Mast cells and basophils express high affinity receptor. The high affinity enables it to bind with IgE, despite low serum concentration of IgE.

? Question 9. What Is P-k Reaction?

Answer :

The response produced when an allergen is injected into an individual, who is sensitive is called P-K reaction.

? Question 10. Give An Example For Electrophilic Substitution Reaction?

Answer :

The species, which accepts the electrons, are called Electrophilles (or) Electrophilic reagents. When the atom (or) group of atoms present in the organic compound is replaced by another atom (or) group of atoms (electrophilic) is called electrophilic substitution reaction.

? Question 11. Where Do Most Allergic Reactions Occur?

Answer :

Most of them occur on mucous membrane. Allergens enter the body by the process of inhalation or ingestion.

? Question 12. Name Some Common Allergens Associated With Type-i Hypersensitivity?

Answer :

Penicillin, sulfonamide, eggs, milk, dust mites, animal air, vaccines etc.

? Question 13. What Are Allergens?

Answer :

Allergens are non-parasitic antigens. They are capable of stimulating hypersensitive reactions in allergy conditions in an individual.

? Question 14. Which Type Of Immunoglobulin Level Will Increase When An Individual Is Exposed To A Parasite?

Answer :

Serum IgE levels will increase and remain until the parasite is washed out from the body.

? Question 15. What Is Type Iv Hypersensitivity?

Answer :

It is cell-mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include graft rejection, dermatitis etc.

? Question 16. What Is Serum Sickness?

Answer :

When an individual is exposed to foreign serum antigen then a combination of symptoms are produced which is called as serum sickness.

? Question 17. Give Some Symptoms Of Serum Sickness?

Answer :

Symptoms include fever, weakness, rashes, with erythema and edema. Serum sickness depends on the immune complexes formed and the size of the complexes.

? Question 18. What Are Primary Mediators?

Answer :

Primary mediators are those, which are produced before degranulation. These primary mediators are stored in granules. Some of the primary mediators are histamine, heparin, proteases etc.

? Question 19. What Are Secondary Mediators?

Answer :

Secondary mediators are produced after target cell activation or released by the break down of phospholipids membrane during the process of degarnulation. Some of the secondary mediators are leukotrienes, various cytokines, prostaglandins etc

? Question 20. Explain In Brief About Histamine?

Answer :

It is formed by the decarboxylation of amino acid histidine. It accounts for 10% of granule weight. This histamine binds to specific receptors on various target cells.

? Question 21. How Many Types Of Histamine Receptors Are There And What Are They?

Answer :

There are three types of histamine receptors. They are H1, H2 and H3.They has different tissue distributions.

? Question 22. What Is The Reaction-taking Place When H2 Receptor Binds To Mast Cells And Basophils?

Answer :

When H2 binds to mast cells and basophils it suppresses degranulation.

? Question 23. Explain In Brief About Leukotrienes And Prostaglandins?

Answer :

Leukotrienes and prostaglandins are formed only when the mast cell undergo degranulation and enzymatic break down of phospholipids in the plasma membrane.

The effects produced by them are more pronounced and long lasting than histamine. Leukotrienes mediate mucous production and bronchoconstriction. Prostaglandin D2 causes bronchoconstriction.

? Question 24. Explain In Brief About Cytokines?

Answer :

Cytokines activate inflammatory cells such as neutrophils and eosnophils.IL-5 is important in activation of eosnophils, IL-4 increases IgE production by B-cells. IL-4, Il-5, IL-6, TNF-a has been secreted by human mast cells.

? Question 25. What Is Atopic Dermatitis?

Answer :

Atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory skin disease. This disease is observed frequently in young children. There will be skin eruptions.

? Question 26. What Is Erythroblastosis Fetalis?

Answer :

It is a hemolytic disease, which develops in newborn. Maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the red bleed cells. This develops when an Rh+ expresses an Rh antigen on blood cells that the mother does not express.

? Question 27. What Is A Rhogam?

Answer :

Is an antibody that binds to any of the blood cells, enter the mother’s blood circulation, and facilitate their clearance by activation of B-cells and memory cell production.

? Question 28. What Is Type Iii Hypersensitivity?

Answer :

It is immune complex mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, necrotizing etc.

? Question 29. Name Some Infectious Diseases?

Answer :

Some of the Infectious diseases are Malaria, meningitis, trypanosomiasis, hepatitis etc…

? Question 30. Name Some Autoimmune Diseases?

Answer :

Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, good pasture’s syndrome

? Question 31. How Many Types Of Hypersensitive Reactions Are There?

Answer :

There are four types of hypersensitive reactions, they are:
Type I hypersensitive reaction
Type II hypersensitive reaction
Type III hypersensitive reaction
Type IV hypersensitive reaction

? Question 32. What Are The Steps In Bacterial Infection?

Answer :

There are four steps in bacterial infection. They are:

  • Attachment to host
  • Proliferation
  • Invasion of host tissue
  • Toxin-induced damage to host cell

? Question 33. What Is The Disease Caused By Rotavirus?

Answer :

The disease caused by rotavirus is infantile diarrhea.

? Question 34. What Is The Disease Caused By Sabia Virus?

Answer :

Brazilian haemorrhagic

? Question 35. What Is The Disease Caused By Ebola Virus?

Answer :

Ebola haemorrhagic fever

? Question 36. What Is The Disease Caused By Hepatitis C?

Answer :

Non-A, Non-B hepatitis are commonly transmitted via transfusion.

? Question 37. What Is The Disease Caused By Toxin Producing Strains Of Staphylococcus Aureus?

Answer :

Toxic shock syndrome

? Question 38. What Is Atopy?

Answer :

The tendency to manifest localized anaphylactic reactions is called atopy.

? Question 39. What Would An Inhalation, Ingestion Exposure As Well As To The Eyes Of Butane, Diethylene Glycol Monobutyl Ether, Monoethanolamine (mea), & Sodium Hydroxide Do To The Human Body?

Answer :

Sodium hydroxide is a very caustic substance – severe burns on skin contact, can cause severe eye irritation and burning – can severely damage surface of eye causing blindness (permanent), severe burring on ingestion and inhalation.
Butane is a gas – it is very toxic if inhaled – acts like an anesthetic – can stop person breathing very quickly.
Diethyleneglycol monobutyl ether is less acutely toxic but does have long-term toxicity on various organs.

? Question 40. What Are Low Affinity Receptors?

Answer :

Low affinity receptors play role in regulating he intensity of IgE response.

? Question 1. How Are Staining Techniques Classified?

Answer :

  • Simple stain: where only one stain is used and all bacteria are stained similarly. Eg: F1ethylene blue, dilute carbol fuchsin
  • Differential staining: where different bacteria stain differently to a common staining technique depending on their physiological properties. Eg: Gram’s stain and Acid fast staining
  • Special stain: where structures of bacteria like spores. granules. capsule etc are demonstrated. Eg: silver impregnation technique for demonstration of spirochetes. Feulgen stain for demonstration of nucleus. Sudan black stain for demonstration of lipid vacuoles. Ryu’s stain for demonstration of flagella. Albert’s stain for demonstration of metachromatic granules.
  • Negative staining: where the background is stained with an acidic dye such as India ink or Nigrosin. Used for demonstration of capsules.

? Question 2. How Are Stains Classified?

Answer :

Stains are classified based on the pH of their chromophore (color bearing ion) into acidic, basic and neutral. Acidic dyes have anionic chromophore

eg.. sodium+ eosinate-. Basic dyes have cationic chromophore eg.. metFiylene blue+ chloride-. Acidic dyes combine more strongly with cytoplasmic components of bacteria, especially the nucleus that is basic in nature. Neutral dyes have both acidic and basic component that nullity each other.

They are Romanowsky’s stain and are used in staining parasitic forms. Stains can be either natural (eg: carmine and hematoxylin) or coal-tar derivatives /aniline stains (eg: methylene blue. crystal violet). Supravital (cells removed from the body) and intravital (cells still a part of the body).

? Question 3. What Is Polychrome Methylene Blue?

Answer :

LoetTler’s methylene blue solution treated with Potassium hydroxide turns into Polychrome methylene blue after prolonged storage with shaking. Used in McFadyean’s reaction for Bacillus anthracis in blood films and demonstration of metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

? Question 4. Who Invented Gram Stain?

Answer :

Hans Christian Gram invented this stain in 1884. The original formulation was Aniline Gentian violet. Lugol’s iodine, absolute alcohol and Bismark brown.

? Question 5. Which Are The Theories Of Gram Staining?

Answer :

Cell wall theory: Cell wall of Gram positive bacteria are 40 times thicker than those of Gram negative cells, hence they are thought to help retain the dye-iodine complex.
Lipid Content Theory: Cell envelope of Gram negative bacteria contains an additional membrane (outer membrane). hence containing more lipids than Gram positive bacteria. Acetone or alcohol dissolves the lipid thus forming large pores in Gram negative bacteria through which the dye-iodine complex leaks out. Alcohol/acetone dehydrates Gram positive bacteria shrinking the cell wall and the closing the pores.
Magnesium Ribonucleate Theory: A compound of magnesium ribonucleate and basic protein concentrated at the cell membrane helps Gram positive bacteria retain the primary dye. Gram negative bacteria do not possess this substance.
Cytoplasmic pH Theory: The cytoplasm of Gram positive bacteria are said to be more acidic (2) than those of Gram negative ones (3). Hence the dye is said to bind with more affinity to Gram positive cells.

? Question 6. Which Part Of The Bacteria Actually Gets Stained?

Answer :

It is the cytoplasm (especially the nucleic acid) that gets stained and not the cell wall. Presence of an intact cell wall is important for retaining Gram positivity. Cell wall deficient forms such as Mycoplasma and L forms are Gram negative.

? Question 7. Which Are The Bacteria Or Bacterial Component That Can’t Be Stained By Gram Stain?

Answer :

  • Extremely slender bacteria such as Treponema
  • Cells containing waxy substances impermeable to stain such as Mycobacteria
  • Minute intracellular bacteria such as Chlamydia and Rickettsia
  • Cell organelles such as capsule. spore. flagella etc

? Question 8. Which Are The Alternatives Used In Gram Stain?

Answer :

  • Primary stain: Crystal violet. Methyl violet and Gentian violet
  • Mordant: Grams iodine, rarely Lugols iodine
  • Decolorizer: Alcohol, acetone. acteone-alcohol mixture (1:1)
  • Counterstain: Dilute carbol fuchsin. safranin, neutral red. (Sandiford stain ror Gonococcj

? Question 9. Which Are The Positive And Negative Controls For Gram Stain?

Answer :

  • Positive control: Staphylococci
  • Negative control: E.coli. pus cells

? Question 10. What Are The Conditions When Gram Positive Bacteria Can Appear Gram Negative?

Answer :

  • When over-decolourized by either prolonged exposure to decolourizer or using acetone alone.
  • When cell wall gets damaged by exposure to lysozyme or cell wall acting antibiotics such as Penicillin.
  • Old cultures, where cell wall is weakened or action of autolytic enzymes
  • Those bacteria that are phagocytosed. where cell wall is acted upon by lysosomal contents

? Question 11. Which Is The More Important Step In Gram Stain?

Answer :

Decolourization is the most important step as this step differentiates between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. Over-decolourization can result in Gram positive bacteria appearing Gram negative and under-decolourization can result in Gram negative bacteria appearing Gram positive.

? Question 12. What Are The Applications Of Gram Staining?

Answer :

  • Rapid presumptive diagnosis of diseases such as bacterial meningitis
  • Selection of empirical antibiotics based on Gram stain finding
  • Selection of suitable culture media based on Gram stain finding
  • Screening of quality of clinical specimens. such as sputum that should contain many pus cells and few epithelial cells
  • Counting of bacteria
  • Appreciation of morphology and types of bacteria in a clinical specimen

? Question 13. Name A Fungus That Is Gram Positive?

Answer :

Candida sps

? Question 14. What Are The Various Modifications Of Gram Stain?

Answer :

  • Kopeloll’ and Beerman’s (Primary stain: Methyl violet. decolourizer: acetone or alcohol-acetone mixture 1:1)
  • Jensen’s (Primary stain: Methyl violet, decolourizer: absolute alcohol. counterstain: Neutral red)
  • Preston and Morrell’s (Primary stain: crystal violet. decolourizer: iodine-acetone)
  • A.igert’s (Primary stain: Carbol gentian violet. decolourizer: Aniline-xylol). This is used to stain tissue sections.

? Question 15. What Is Acid Fast Staining?

Answer :

Certain bacteria or their structures have the ability to retain the primary dye (strong carbol fuchsin) and resist clecolourization by weak mineral acids such as H2S04. HCI. Such bacteria or their structure are termed acid fast and this property is termed acid fastness. There are two types of acid fast staining, the hot method and the cold method. The hot method (Ziehl-Neelsen) involves heating the slide while the cold methods such as Kinyoun’s and Gabbett’s do not involve heating the slide.

? Question 16. Who Introduced Acid Fast Staining?

Answer :

Ehrlich in 1882 discovered acid fastness. The original method involved staining with aniline-gentian violet and decolourization with strong nitric acid.

It was later improved by Ziehl and Neelsen.

? Question 17. Why Are Mycobacteria Acid Fast?

Answer :

The cell walls of Mycobacterla are made up of waxy substance, Mycolic acid that Is relatively Impermeable to ordinary stainIng techniques. But, by apphcation of heat and a mordant (phenol), the cell can be stained The purpose of heating is to soften the waxy material of the cell wall and allow the stain to enter the cell. Basic fuchsin is more soluble in phenol and phenol is a better solvent for lipids and waxes.

? Question 18. What Are The Components Of Ziehi-neelsen Stain?

Answer :

  • Primary stain: Strong Carbol Fuchsin (contain Basic fuchsin and Phenol)
  • Decolourizer 20% sulphuric acid
  • Counterstain LoelTler’s Methylene blue or 1% Malachite green, Picric acid for color-blind workers

? Question 19. What Is Acid-alcohol Decolourizer?

Answer :

3% HCI in 95% alcohol (methylated spirit). This is useful in dilrerentiating saprophytic Mycobacteria from pathogenic Mycobacteria Pathogenic Mycobacteria are both acid and alcohol fast but saprophytic Mycobacterla are only acid-fast Saprophytic Mycobacterla can get declourized by alcohol. 95% alcohol can be used as a secondary decolorizer after decolourizing with acid Especially used in staining smears prepared from urine that may contain Mycobacterium smegmatis.

? Question 20. Which Are The Various Dilutions Of Sulfuric Acid Used?

Answer :

  • Mycobacterlum leprae - 5% H2S04
  • Oocysts of Cryptosporidium. Isospora - 1 % H2S04
  • Tissue sections containing Actinomyctes. Nocardia - 1 % H2S04
  • Cultures of Nocardia - 0.5% H2S04
  • Bacterial spores - 0.25-0.5% H2S04

? Question 21. What Are Cold Methods Of Acid Fast Staining?

Answer :

The two methods namely Kinyoun’s and Gabbetts dont involve heating of slides, hence called cold methods. Heating is substituted by increased concentration of phenol and prolonging the duration of staining. Kinyoun’s method is favoured for detection of Cryptosporidium oocysts in fecal samples. Gabbetts method has decolourizer and counterstain in one solution.

? Question 22. Why Should The Slide Be Flooded With Strong Carbol Fuchsin?

Answer :

For uniform distribution of heat, or else the slide may break.

? Question 23. What Are The Precautions To Be Taken While Preparing Or Observing Smears For Afb?

Answer :

  • A new slide must be used for every specimen. because scratch marks may give false positive.
  • A uniform smear from thick portion of the sputum must be made.
  • Staining jars should not be used to staining smear as there is risk to cross contamination
  • Fresh blotting paper must be used for each smear for drying the slide to prevent transfer from one slide to another.

? Question 24. How To Interpret The Smear?

Answer :

At least 100 oIl Immersion fields must be viewed before declaring the smear as negative The sensitivity of smear Is low because It requires the presence of 104 bacillilml to be smear positive. If the number of bacilli is less than this, the chances of detecting them are less In such a case, the sample should be subjected to concentration techniques such as Petroff s method If the smear Es positive for AFB. it should be counted/graded Failure to detect any AFB does not rule tuberculosis Grading of smears has prognostic value.

? Question 25. How Is The Smear Graded?

Answer :

Smears are graded depending on the number of bacilli seen

  • 3-9 bacilli/entire smear: +
  • 10 bacilli/entire smear ++
  • 10 bacilli/in most oil Immersion fields: +++

? Question 26. What Other Methods Are Available For Staining Mycobacteria?

Answer :

Sputum smears for Mycobacterla can be stained by fluorescent dyes such as Auramine and Rhodamlne as they have affinity for mycolic acid In their cell walIs The fluorescent microscopy is useful in screening large number of specimens. Large area of smear can be quickly observed that too under high power dry objective.

? Question 27. What Is Beaded Appearance Of Mycobacteria?

Answer :

Beaded appearance is used to describe the appearance of Mycobacterla when the cell doesn’t stain uniformly. showing stained and unstained regions. These forms are common in Mycobacterium tuberculosis while Mycobacterium bovis stains uniformly. Most saprophytic Mycobacteria stain uniformly.

? Question 28. What Are Metachromatic Granules?

Answer :

Metachromatic granules are pol’ymetaphosphate reserves produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae in nutritious medium. These granules are also known as Babes Ernst granules. ‘blutin granules. Polar bodies etc. They are called metachromatic granules because of they exhibit metachromasia.

a property where the granules appear in a colour different from that of the dye used When stained with polychrome methylene blue, they appear purple They are produced In abundance In serum containing medium such as Loeffler’s serum slope.

? Question 29. Which Are The Ways To Demonstrate These Granules?

Answer :

Albert’s stain. Neissers stain, Ponder’s stain and Pugh’s stain They can be demonstrated as retractile bodies in wet mount or slightly more gram positive structures in Gram stain.

? Question 30. Why Are The Bacilli Arranged At Angles To Each Other?

Answer :

The bacdh are arranged at angles to each other resembling English letter V or L or Chinese letter (cuneiform) pattern because the daughter cells doWt separate completely after cell dMslon (binary rission).

? Question 31. What Do Albert A(1) And B(2) Solution Contain?

Answer :

Solution A(1) contains Toluidine blue, Malachite green, Glacial acetic acid and Alcohol while solution 8(2) contains iodine and potassium iodide In distilled water.

? Question 32. What Is Sterilization And Disinfection?

Answer :

The process of kdling all hying forms including spores is called sterilization and the process of killing of only the vegetative form of pathogenic bacteria as well as other microbes is disinfection

? Question 33. What Is The Temperature And Time Employed To Sterilize The Articles In Hot Air Oven?

Answer :

160°C for 60 mInutes

? Question 34. What Are The Conditions Of Sterilization In An Autoclave?

Answer :

121°C for 15 minutes at 15 pounds per square inch of pressure

? Question 35. What Are The Articles Sterilized In A Hot Air Oven?

Answer :

Glassware’s, metallic instruments like scissors and forceps, swabs. powder. oils and grease.

? Question 36. What Are The Articles Sterilized In An Autoclave?

Answer :

Culture media, gloVes. cotton and clothes.

? Question 37. How Are Heat Labile Fluids Such As Serum And Antibiotic Solutions Sterilized?

Answer :

By filtration.

? Question 38. How Is Air Sterilized?

Answer :

By High Elliciency Particulate Air (HEPA) filters.

? Question 39. Name Some Disinfectants?

Answer :

Phenol. Lysol, Formaldehyde. Sodium hypochlorite.

? Question 40. What Are Antiseptics?

Answer :

Antiseptics are mild disinfectants that can be safely used on skin and mucous membranes.

? Question 41. Quaternary Ammonium Compounds?

Answer :

Quaternary ammonium compounds are positively charged polyatomic ions, which concentrate at the cell surface and alter the physical and chemical properties of the membrane, thus killing the cefl. Examples inlcude Benzalkonium chloride and Cetrimonium bromide.

? Question 42. What Do Popular Brands Of Antiseptics Such As Dettol Or Savlon Contain?

Answer :

The active ingredient of Dettol is chloroxylenol whereas Savlon contains a combination of Cetrimide and Chiorhexidine.

? Question 43. Which Are The Active Ingredients Of Commercial Mouthwashes?

Answer :

The active ingredients include Chlorhexidine. Triclosan. Thymol. Cetylpyridinium Chloride, and alcohol. The composition varies across brands.

? Question 44. What Are Chemisterilants?

Answer :

These are the chemicals used for sterilization. They are 2% Gluteraldehyde (cidex). Ethylene Oxide (EO). Formaldehyde + steam and Beta — Propiolactone (BPL).

? Question 45. Which Iodine Compounds Are Used In Antiseptics?

Answer :

  • Tincture Iodine - 2% of Iodine in 70% alcohol - lodophore - Povidone Iodine.
  • Name some antiseptics.
  • Chlorhexidine. Chloroxylenol. spirit (70% alcohol), tincture of Iodine. H202.

? Question 46. Which Is The Best Disinfectant Used In Serology?

Answer :

Sodium hypochlorite or Calcium hypochlorite

? Question 47. How Are The Clinical Specimen Disinfected Before Discarding?

Answer :

By treating them with disinfectant, boiling or autoclaving and finally by incineration

? Question 48. How Are The Articles Commercially Sterilized?

Answer :

Gamma rays. Electron beams and Ethylene oxide

? Question 49. How Are Hemodialyzers And Endoscopes Disinfected?

Answer :

Glutaraldehyde or a combination of peracetic acid and hydrogen peroxide can be used.

? Question 50. How Does Ethylene Oxide Sterilize?

Answer :

Alkylation (hydrogen atom is replaced with an alkyl group) of protein. DNA. and RNA afFects bacterial metabolism and replication. EQ gas (8.5%) is often mixed with stabilizers such as CO2 (91 5%) or hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFC). This requires high humidity (40-80%) and long exposure times (1-6 hrs).

? Question 51. What Is Duckering?

Answer :

Ducking Is a process of inactivation of Anthrax spores in animal products such as wool, hairs or bristles. It was introduced by Elmhirst Duckering, an enginer at wool factory. This is a live-step process. each lasting for 10 minutes and carried out at 40.5°c.

  • immersion in 0.25-0.3% alkali
  • immersion in soapy water
  • immersion in 2% formaldehyde
  • secondimmersion in 2% formaldehyde
  • rinsinq in water

? Question 52. What Are The Various Filters?

Answer :

Porcelain filters. Seitz (asbestos) filters. Sintered glass filters. Membrane filters and HEP filters.

? Question 53. What Are The Uses Of Inspissator?

Answer :

It disinfects and solidifies egg and serum containing media such as U medium and LoelTiers serum slope.

? Question 54. How Is Operation Theatre Sterilized?

Answer :

By fumigation with formaldehyde.

? Question 55. What Is Meant By Cold Sterilization?

Answer :

Use of high-energy radiation such as gamma rays to sterilize an article.

? Question 1. What Is An Sop ?

Answer :

Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) is a certain type of document that describes in a step-by-step

? Question 2. What Is 21 Cfr Part 11 ?

Answer :

Title 21 CFR Part 11 of the Code of Federal Regulations deals with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) guidelines on electronic records and electronic signatures in the United States. Part 11, as it is commonly called, defines the criteria under which electronic records and electronic signatures are considered to be trustworthy, reliable and equivalent to paper records.

? Question 3. What Are User Requirements ?

Answer :

User Requirements Specification describes what users require from the System. User requirement specifications are written early in the validation process, typically before the system is created. It is written by the System Owner and End Users, with input from Quality Assurance. Requirements outlined in the URS are usually tested in the Performance Qualification. User Requirements Specifications are not intended to be a technical document; readers with only a general knowledge of the system should be able to understand the requirements outlined in the URS.

? Question 4. What Is A Validation Plan ?

Answer :

Validation Plans define the scope and goals of a validation project. Validation plans are written before a validation project and are specific to a single validation project.

Validation Plans can include:

  • Deliverables (Documents) to be generated during the validation process
  • Resources/Departments/Personnel to participate in the validation project
  • Time-Line for completing the validation project

? Question 5. What Is An Iq Document ?

Answer :

Installation Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify the proper installation of a System. The requirement to properly install the system was defined in the Design Specification. Installation Qualifications must be performed before completing Operational Qualification and Performance Qualification.

? Question 6. What Is An Oq Document ?

Answer :

Operational Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify the proper functioning of a System. The operational qualification tests requirements defined in the Functional Requirements. Operational Qualifications are usually performed before the system is released for use.

? Question 7. What Is A Pq Document ?

Answer :

Performance Qualifications are a collection of test cases used to verify that a System performs as expected under simulated real-world conditions. The performance qualification tests requirements that were defined in the User Requirement Specification (or possibly the Functional Requirements). Due to the nature of performance qualifications, these tests are sometime conducted with power users as the system is being released.

? Question 8. What Is A Validation Summary Report ?

Answer :

Validation Summary Reports provide an overview of the entire validation project. When regulatory auditors review validation projects, they typically begin by reviewing the summary report.

The validation summary report should include:

  • A description of the validation project
  • All test cases performed, including if those test cases passed without issue
  • All deviations reported, including how those deviations were resolved

? Question 9. What Is A Change Request ?

Answer :

Change Control is a general term describing the process of managing how changes are introduced into a controlled System. In validation, this means how changes are made to the validated system. Change control is required to demonstrate to regulatory authorities that validated systems remain under control after system changes. Change Control systems are a favorite target of regulatory auditors because they vividly demonstrate an organization capacity to control its systems.

? Question 10. Why Water For Pharmaceutical Use Is Always Kept In Close Loop In Continuous Circulation?

Answer :

Water is a best medium for many microorganisms, microorganism can be a highly pathogenic which causes serious diseases(many diseases are water born), these pathogens infect after consumption of contaminated water, microorganisms tend to settle on a surface if water is allowed to stand in a stagnant position for few hours, these settled microorganism form a film over the surface of vessel and piping, such film formed by microorganisms is also called as biofilm, biofilms are very difficult of remove, once a biofilm is formed at a particular point then that point may form a biofilm again even after cleaning very easily as seed from this point is may not completely get removed effectively.

? Question 11. Biofilms Then Can Become A Source Of Microbial Contaminations; Therefore Purified Water After Collection In A Distribution System Is Always Kept In A Closed Loop In A Continuous Circulation.

Answer :

Water is a best medium for many microorganisms, microorganism can be a highly pathogenic which causes serious diseases(many diseases are water born), these pathogens infect after consumption of contaminated water, microorganisms tend to settle on a surface if water is allowed to stand in a stagnant position for few hours, these settled microorganism form a film over the surface of vessel and piping, such film formed by microorganisms is also called as biofilm, biofilms are very difficult of remove, once a biofilm is formed at a particular point then that point may form a biofilm again even after cleaning very easily as seed from this point is may not completely get removed effectively.

? Question 12. Water For Pharmaceutical Use Shall Be Free Cations,anions And Other Impurities Why ?

Answer :

Water for pharmaceutical must be free from inorganic as well as organic impurities, minerals, and heavy metals. Some impurities like calcium, magnesium, ferrous are responsible for degradation of drug molecule, many cations like ferrous and calcium magnesium act as catalysts in degradation reaction of drug molecule, anions like chloride are highly active they participate in nucliophylic substitution reactions, where in they break a double bond between -C=C- in to a single bond as CL –CH-CH2- , which a reason why we observe that color dies tend to fed in presence of chlorine as most of the dies used are diazo compounds which has plenty of places for nucliophylic substitution reactions, which is also a reason why stability of drug is drastically affected in presence of cations and anions from mineral origin present in water.

? Question 13. Water For Pharmaceutical Use Shall Be Free Heavy Metals Why ?

Answer :

Heavy metals like lead and arsenic are highly cumulative neurotoxic metals, heavy metals are not eliminated out of our body easily like other drugs and molecules but heavy metals bind with proteins and tend to get accumulated in fatty tissues, nerve tissue is most likely to get damaged by heavy metals, heavy metal causes nervous tissue damage there for water must be free from heavy metals.

? Question 14. Brazil Falls Under Which Climatic Zone ?

Answer :

Zone IVB (30 degree celsius and 75% relative humidity)

? Question 15. Change In The Size Or Shape Of The Original Container Requires Any Stability Study?

Answer :

Change in the size or shape of the original container may not necessitate the initiation of new stability study.

? Question 16. Forced Degradation(stress Testing) And Accelerated Stability Testing Are Same?

Answer :

Forced degradation and stress testing are not same. Stress testing is likely to be carried out on a single batch of the drug substance. The testing should include the effect of temperatures (in 10°C increments (e.g., 50°C, 60°C) above that for accelerated testing), humidity (e.g., 75 percent relative humidity or greater) where appropriate, oxidation, and photolysis on the drug substance. The testing should also evaluate the susceptibility of the drug substance to hydrolysis across a wide range of pH values when in solution or suspension. Photo stability testing should be an integral part of stress testing.

? Question 17. According To Who Guidelines What Is The Storage Condition Of Climatic Zone Iva And Zone Ivb?

Answer :

Zone IV a: 30°C and 65% RH (hot and humid countries)

Zone IV b: 30°C and 75% RH (hot and very humid countries

? Question 18. Countries Comes Under Climatic Zone Ivb?

Answer :

Brazil,Cuba,China,Brunei,Cambodia,Indonesia,Malaysia,Myanmar,Philippines,Singapore,Thailand

? Question 19. What Is The Purpose Of Stress Testing In Stability Studies?

Answer :

Stress testing of the drug substance can help identify the likely degradation products, which can in turn help establish the degradation pathways and the intrinsic stability of the molecule and validate the stability indicating power of the analytical procedures used. The nature of the stress testing will depend on the individual drug substance and the type of drug product involved.

? Question 20. What Is Dead Leg?

Answer :

A dead leg is defined as an area in a piping system where liquid can become stagnant and not be exchanged during flushing.

? Question 21. What Is The Recommended Bio Burden Limits Of Purified Water & Wfi?

Answer :

Purified water has a recommended bioburden limit of 100 CFU/mL, and water for injection (WFI) has a recommen

? Question 22. Brief About Ich Stability Guidelines?

Answer :

Q1A- Stability testing of new drug substance & products

? Question 23. What Is Significant Changes In Stability Testing?

Answer :

A 5% change in assay for initial value.

? Question 24. If Leak Test Fail During In Process Checks What Needs To Be Done ?

Answer :

Immediately stop packing process and check for:

1. Sealing temperature

2. Verify for any possible changes like foil width,knurling etc.

3. Check & quarantine the isolated quantity of packed goods from last passed inprocess.

4. Collect random samples & do retest.

5. Blisters from the leak test passed containers shall allow to go further and rest must be deblistered/defoiled accordingly.

? Question 25. How Many Tablets Shall Be Taken For Checking Friability?

Answer :

For tablets with unit mass equal or less than 650 mg, take sample of whole tablets corresponding to 6.

? Question 26. What Is The Pass Or Fail Criteria For Friability Test?

Answer :

Generally the test is run for once.If any cracked,cleaved or broken tablets present in the tablet sample after tumbling,the tablets fails the test.If the results are doubtful,or weight loss is grater than the targeted value,the test should be repeated twice and the mean of the three tests determined.A mean weight loss from the three samples of not more than 1.0% is considered acceptable for most of the products.

? Question 27. What Is The Standard Number Of Rotations Used For Friability Test?

Answer :

100 rotations

? Question 28. What Is The Fall Height Of The Tablets In The Friabilator During Friability Testing?

Answer :

6 inches.Tablets falls from 6 inches eight in each turn within the apparatus.

? Question 29. Why Do We Check Hardness During Inprocess Checks?

Answer :

To determine need for the pressure adjustments on the tableting machine. Hardness can affect the disintegration time.If tablet is too hard, it may not disintegrate in the required period of time. And if tablet is too soft it will not withstand handling and subsequent processing such as coating,packing etc.

? Question 30. What Are The Factors Which Influence Tablet Hardness?

Answer :

1. compression force

2. Binder quantity(More binder more hardness)

3. Moisture content

? Question 31. Which Type Of Tablets Are Exempted From Disintegration Testing?

Answer :

Chewable Tablets

? Question 32. Which Capsule Is Bigger In Size - Size '0' Or Size '1'?

Answer :

'0' size

? Question 33. What Is The Recommended Temperature For Checking Dt Of A Dispersible Tablet?

Answer :

25 ±10C (IP) & 15 – 250C (BP)

? Question 34. What Is Mesh Aperture Of Dt Apparatus ?

Answer :

1.8 -2.2mm (#10)

? Question 35. What Is The Pass/fail Criteria For Disintegration Test?

Answer :

If one or two tablets/capsules fails to disintegrate completely, repeat the test on another 12 additional dosage units. The requirement is meet if not fewer than 16 out of 18 tablets/capsules tested are disintegrated completely.

? Question 36. What Is The Recommended Storage Conditions For Empty Hard Gelatin Capsules?

Answer :

15 - 250C & 35 -55% RH

? Question 37. Which Method Is Employed For Checking “uniformity Of Dosage Unit”?

Answer :

Content uniformity

? Question 38. What Is The Recommended Upward And Downward Movement Frequency Of A Basket-rack Assembly In A Dt Apparatus?

Answer :

28 – 32 cycles per minute.

? Question 39. When Performing The ‘uniformity Of Weight’ Of The Dosage Unit, How Many Tablet/capsule Can Deviate The Established Limit?

Answer :

Not more than two of the individual weights can deviates from the average weight by more than the percentage given in the pharmacopeia,and none can deviates more than twice that percentage.

Weight Variation limits for Tablets.

? Question 40. What Precautions Shall Be Taken While Collecting In Process Samples ?

Answer :

While collecting inprocess samples, avoid contamination of the product being sampled (Don’t collect samples with bare hands) & avoid contamination of sample taken.

? Question 41. In A Tablet Manufacturing Facility ‘positive’ Pressure Is Maintained In Processing Area Or Service Corridors?

Answer :

In tablet manufacturing facilities, pressure gradients are maintained to avoid cross contamination of products through air. Usually processing areas are maintained under positive pressure with respect to service corridors.

? Question 42. If Sticking Observed During Tablet Compression What May The Probable Reason For The Same?

Answer :

1. If the granules are not dried properly sticking can occur.

2. Too little or improper lubrication can also leads to sticking.

3. Sticking can occur because of too much binder or hygroscopic granular.

? Question 43. What Checks Shall Be Carried Out, While Calibrating Dt Apparatus?

Answer :

While calibrating DT apparatus, following checks shall be performed.

? Question 44. What Is In Process Checks?

Answer :

In process checks are checks performed during an activity,In order to monitor and,if necessary,to adjust the process to ensure that product confirms to its specification.

? Question 45. What Is The Difference Between Disintegration And Dissolution?

Answer :

  • Disintegration is a disaggregation process, in which an oral dosage form falls apart in to smaller aggregates.(Disintegration time is the ‘break up’ time of a solid dosage form).
  • Where as dissolution is a process by which solid substance enters in the solvent to yield a solution.It is controlled by the affinity between the solid substance and the solvent.
  • In other word disintegration is a subset of dissolution.

? Question 46. Why Do We Calibrate A Qualified Equipment/instrument On Definite Intervals?

Answer :

An equipment or instrument can ‘drift’ out of accuracy between the time of qualification and actual use.So it is recommended to calibrate and recalibrate the measuring devices and instruments on predetermined time intervals, to gain confidence on the accuracy of the data.

? Question 47. Why Do We Consider Three Consecutive Runs/batches For Process Validation? Why Not Two Or Four?

Answer :

The number of batches produced in the validation exercise should be sufficient to allow the normal extent of variation and trends to be established and to provide sufficient data for evaluation and reproducibility.

  • First batch quality is accidental (co-incidental),
  • Second batch quality is regular (accidental),
  • Third batch quality is validation(conformation).

In 2 batch we cannot assure the reproducibility of data,4 batches can be taken but the time and cost are involved.

? Question 48. Explain About Revalidation Criteria Of Ahu System?

Answer :

AHU system shall be revalidated periodically as mentioned in the regulatory standards.

AHU shall be revalidated in following cases also:

  • When basic design of AHU is changed,
  • When clean room volume is changed,
  • When new equipment is installed
  • When a construction is carried out, that calls for reconstruction of AHU system.

? Question 49. What Needs To Be Checked During Ahu Validation?

Answer :

During AHU validation, following tests shall be carried out:

  • Filter efficiency test,
  • Air velocity & number of air changes,
  • Air flow pattern (visualization)
  • Differential pressure, temperature and RH
  • Static condition area qualification
  • Dynamic condition qualification
  • Non-viable count
  • Microbial monitoring
  • Area recovery and power failure study.

? Question 50. Position Of Oblong Tablets To Be Placed In Hardness Tester To Determine The Hardness? Lengthwise / Widthwise?

Answer :

Position of oblong tablets should be length wise because the probability of breakage is more in this position.

? Question 51. Explain In Detail About Qualification Of Pharmaceutical Water System?

Answer :

Qualification of pharmaceutical water system involves three phases:

  • Phase -1
  • Phase -2
  • Phase -3

Phase -1:

A test period of 2-4 weeks should be spent for monitoring the system intensively. During this period the system should operate continuously without failure or performance deviation.Water cannot be used for pharmaceutical manufacturing in this phase.The following should be included in testing approach.

  • Under take chemical & microbiological testing in accordance with a defined plan.
  • Sample incoming feed water daily to verify its quality.
  • Sample each step of purification process daily.
  • Sample each point of use daily.
  • Develop appropriate operating ranges.
  • Demonstrate production and delivery of product water of required quantity and quality.
  • Use and refine the SOP’s for operation,maintenance,sanitization and trouble shooting.
  • Verify provisional alert and action levels.
  • Develop and refine test failure procedure.

Phase -2:

A further test period of 2-4 weeks. Sampling scheme will be same as Phase – 1.Water can be used for manufacturing process in this phase. Approach should also

  • Demonstrate consistent operation within established ranges.
  • Demonstrate consistent production & delivery of water of required quality and quantity.

Phase - 3:

Phase 3 runs for one year after satisfactory completion of phase-2.Water can be used for manufacturing process during this process.

Objectives & Features of Phase -3:

  • Demonstrate extensive reliable performance.
  • Ensure that seasonal variations are evaluated.
  • The sample locations, sampling frequencies and test should be reduced to the normal routine pattern based on established procedures proven during Phase -1 & phase - 2.

? Question 52. What Is The Difference Between Calibration And Validation?

Answer :

  • Calibration is a demonstration that, a particular
  • Instrument or device produces results with in specified limits by comparisons with those produced by a reference or traceable standard over an appropriate range of measurements.
  • Where as Validation is a documented program that provides high degree of assurance that a specific process, method or system consistently produces a result meeting pre-determined acceptance criteria.
  • In calibration performance of an instrument or device is comparing against a reference standard. But in validation such reference standard is not using.
  • Calibration ensures that instrument or measuring devices producing accurate results. Whereas validation demonstrates that a process, equipment, method or system produces consistent results (in other words, it ensures that uniforms batches are produced).

? Question 53. Briefly Explain About Ich Climatic Zones For Stability Testing & Long Term Storage Conditions?

Answer :

ICH STABILITY ZONES:

Zone: Type of Climate

Zone I: Temperate zone

Zone II: Mediterranean/subtropical zone

Zone III: Hot dry zone

Zone IVa: Hot humid/tropical zone

Zone IVb:

  • ASEAN testing conditions hot/higher humidity
  • Long term Storage condition
  • Climatic Zone
  • Temperature
  • Humidity

Minimum Duration:

Zone I:

21ºC ± 2ºC

45% rH ± 5% rH

12 Months

Zone II:

25ºC ± 2ºC

60% rH ± 5% rH

12 Months

Zone III:

30ºC ± 2ºC

35% rH ± 5% rH

12 Months

Zone IV:

30ºC ± 2ºC

65% rH ± 5% rH

12 Months

Zone IVb:

30ºC ± 2ºC

75% rH ± 5% rH

12 Months

Refrigerated

5ºC ± 3ºC

No Humidity

12 Months

Frozen

-15ºC ± 5ºC

No Humidity

12 Months

? Question 54. What Are The Common Variables In The Manufacturing Of Tablets?

Answer :

Particle size of the drug substance:

  • Bulk density of drug substance/excipients
  • Powder load in granulator
  • Amount & concentration of binder
  • Mixer speed & mixing timings
  • Granulation moisture content
  • Milling conditions
  • Lubricant blending times
  • Tablet hardness
  • Coating solution spray rate

? Question 55. Whether Bracketing & Validation Concept Can Be Applied In Process Validation?

Answer :

  • Both Matrixing and Bracketing can be applied in validation studies.
  • Matrixing
  • Different strength of same product
  • Different size of same equipment
  • Bracketing - Evaluating extremes
  • Largest and smallest fill volumes
  • Fastest and slowest operating speeds

? Question 1. Explain Which Type Of Immunoglobulin Level Will Increase When An Individual Is Exposed To A Parasite?

Answer :

Serum IgE levels will increase and remain until the parasite is washed out from the body.

? Question 2. Explain With An Example Of Haemopoietic Growth Factor Is: Platelet Derived Growth Factor, Epidermal Growth Factor, Iron Dextran, Erythropoietin.

Answer :

erythropoietin

? Question 3. Explain Dose Of Acetaminophen In Children: 5-10mg/kg/day, 5-10mg/kg/dose, 10-15mg/kg/day, 10-15mg/kg/dose.

Answer :

10-15mg/kg/dose.

? Question 4. Explain Which Of The Following Hypnotic Agents Is Absorbed Slowly? Phenobarbital, Flurazepam, Triazolam, Temazepam.

Answer :

Temazepam

? Question 5. Explain Flumazenil Blocks The Actions Of: Phenobarbital, Morphine, Zolpidem, Ethanol.

Answer :

Zolpidem

? Question 6. Explain Indirect-acting Adrenoreceptor Blocking Drug: Tolazoline, Reserpine, Carvedilol, Prazosin.

Answer :

Reserpine

? Question 7. Explain The Hypnotic Drugs Induce: Increase The Duration Of Rem Sleep, Decrease The Duration Of Rem Sleep, Do Not Alter The Duration Of Rem Sleep, Increase The Duration Of Slow Wave Sleep.

Answer :

Decrease the duration of REM sleep

? Question 8. Explain Which Of The Following Is An Antifungal, Flucytosin, Cytosine Arabinoside, 5 Fluourasil, Procarbazine.

Answer :

Flucytosin

? Question 9. Explain Which Of The Following Benzodiazepines Is Used Mainly For Hypnosis? Clonozepam, Lorazepam, Flurazepam, Midazolam.

Answer :

Flurazepam

? Question 10. Explain Oral Contraception Failure Can Occur With A/e: Ampicillin, Phenytoin, Rifampicin, Mebendazole.

Answer :

mebendazole

Question 11. Explain Do You Know How The Dose For Children Is Being Estimated Based On Preclinical Data?

Answer :

There are a number of ways of estimating children's doses from preclinical (adult) data - often depends on the therapeutic index of the drug in question (the wider the therapeutic window the less accurate the child's dose needs to be). Sometimes straight weight-basis i.e. 7kg child gets 1/10 dose of 70kg adult. More accurate (so they say) is a dose based on body surface area (child's surface area is greater in proportion to its body weight than an adult is).

There are normograms to calculate surface area from weight and height of child. All of these may be wrong if clearance of drug in child is significantly different from adult e.g. different metabolism or different route of clearance.

? Question 1. What Are The Responsibilities Of Clinical Lab Technician?

Answer :

Responsibilities of clinical lab technician varies with the department you are assigned to, but usually it involves

  • Wide range of testing
  • Running complex analysis
  • Examine blood cells with mircoscope
  • Scanning of specimen
  • Using expensive chemicals wisely
  • Maintaining and monitoring various equipment’s
  • Checking contamination in chemicals at regular interval

? Question 2. What Is Glp?

Answer :

GLP means Good Laboratory Practice. It is a framework or pattern under which research work are planned, performed, monitored, recorded, reported and archived.

? Question 3. Why Glp Is Followed In The Lab?

Answer :

  • Following GLP standard, minimizes the chance of error occurs due to humans
  • It supports for product registration, and also assures the suitability of data to the regulatory authorities
  • It helps to reduce the cost of industry and governments by avoiding duplicative testing
  • It helps to re-create a study from the recorded data and information

? Question 4. What Are The Common Errors Done By Technician While Handling Pipette?

Answer :

  • Failure to pre-wet the pipette tip
  • Disregarding temperature – temperature equilibrated
  • Tip wiping over and again
  • Choosing wrong pipetting mode
  • Working too quickly
  • Pipetting at a wrong angle
  • Using wrong pipette tips

? Question 5. Why Pipetting Training Is Crucial For Clinical Technician?

Answer :

By having a proper pipette training, always helps to minimize the risk of volume variability caused by Operators, also a small fraction of the change in pipetting can give you the wrong result.

? Question 6. Define What Is Aliquot?

Answer :

An aliquot is the known amount of homogeneous material, used to minimize the sampling error. It is usually used when fractional part is an exact divisor of the whole.

? Question 7. What Are The Different Techniques For Placing Samples In Micro-scope?

Answer :

Different techniques used for placing samples under micro-scope are:

Dry Mount: You simply put section of specimen with a cover slip over a sample

Wet Mount: Samples are placed under various liquid medium like glycerine, water, brine and water

Smear Slides: In this technique, sample is smear over the slide and on top it another slide is placed without forming bubbles

Squash Slides: In this technique, lens tissue is used over the wet mount, and it will remove excess water

Staining: Stains such as iodine, methylene blue and crystal violet is used to stain the specimen

? Question 8. What Are Different Sterilization Methods Used In Laboratory?

Answer :

The most common methods of sterilization practised in lab are:

Dry heat: Specimen containing bacteria is exposed to high temperature

Wet heat: Pressurised steam is used to kill microbes, for example, autoclave that is like pressure cooker that produces steam.

Filtration: Filtration is used where filters are as small as 0.2um is used

Radiation: UV has limited penetration, so it is generally safe to use although it is less effective to X-rays and gamma rays. X-rays and gamma rays are used only for special purposes only

Solvent: Solvent like ethanol and iso-propanol kills microbial cells but not the spores.

? Question 9. What Is The Difference Between Sterilization And Disinfection?

Answer :

Sterilization: The thorough sterilization of all microbes present on the surgical instrument is referred as Sterilization>

Disinfection: While reducing the total number of microbes below the risk level is referred as Disinfection

? Question 10. What Is Gas Sterilization?

Answer :

In gas sterilization chemicals like ethylene oxide and mixture based on the substance are used for sterilizing substances. They are highly flammable and potentially explosive in nature; they are mixed with inert gases to neutralize their explosive nature.

? Question 11. What Are The Factors On Which The Gas Sterilization Depends On?

Answer :

Gas sterilization depends on factors like:

  • Concentration of the gas
  • Humidity
  • Time of exposure
  • Temperature
  • Nature of the load

? Question 12. What Clinical Lab Audit Is And What Are The Areas You Can Do Clinical Audit?

Answer :

A clinical lab audit is done in order to maintain and operate the lab at a standard level.

The area that includes in clinical audit are:

Specimens: To check the patient register and see whether the specimen was received at the right time

Turnaround time: To check whether the specimen was tested and returned at allocated time, and if delayed how to improve it

GLP: To check whether the test methods carried out follows the standard procedures Purchasing equipment’s, reagents and other lab instruments

Laboratory reports: To check whether they are precise and clear and look for any area for improvement Storage of reagents and specimens

Safety policies and procedures: Use of dangerous substances should be audited, and every single accident in the lab should be recorded.

? Question 13. What Is Laboratory Centrifuges?

Answer :

Laboratory Centrifuge is primarily used for testing liquids and substances for clinical trial samples. This device uses the centrifugal force to separate the liquids from the main sample or mixture.

? Question 14. What Is Supernatant?

Answer :

When sample is rotated into centrifuge, it will separate the mixture according to the density. Supernatant is the upper layer found in the sample after it is run into centrifuge.

? Question 15. What Are The Steps You Can Take To Avoid Imbalance In Centrifuge?

Answer :

To avoid an imbalance in centrifuge it requires:

Balanced loading of the centrifuge rotor

Even number of tubes should be loaded facing each other or in the opposite direction

When odd number of tubes are loaded make sure, you make it even with adding one more tube with an equal amount of water of that of the sample tube

? Question 16. What Is Blank?

Answer :

Blank term is used to refer the sample tube which does not contain the analyte.

? Question 17. What Is Calibration Curve?

Answer :

Calibration curve is the relationship between the various concentration of analyte in a suitable solvent or matrix and the signal response of the instrument.

? Question 18. What Is Co-chromatography?

Answer :

Co-chromatography is the procedure used to detect an unknown substance by comparing the chromatic comparison with a known substance.

? Question 19. What Do You Mean By A Confirmatory Test?

Answer :

For unambiguous identification of drug or metabolites in the sample, alternative chemical method is used also known as a second test.

? Question 20. What Is A Positive Control?

Answer :

Positive control is a specimen having the analyte at a concentration above a specific limit.

? Question 21. What Is Dynamic Range?

Answer :

It is defined as a range over which a relationship exists between assay response and analyte concentration.

1. What do you understand by the term “Bio-Technology”?

Bio-Technology is a process where a team of scientist researched and

worked together and uses this method to enhance the nutrition level of

the food, good production

of the food, safety and to retain the taste of the food. In this methodology, they use fewer pesticides and improve crops

2. What does GMO stands for and what importance does it has in bio-technology field?

This is more of a technical question, applicant should have studied well

in this field to answer this question, GMO means genetically modified

organism where in two

different genetics and molecule is used and combined to create one new

genetic organism. This is usually done by using genetic engineering

techniques

3. What are the problems we could face by using this genetic engineering tools?

By using genetic engineering tools, all the plants and crops are exposed

to too many pesticides and herbicides, they are over used to maintain

it fresh and to retain

the taste of the food. Traditionally farmers avoid using so many pesticides for crops, they use them liberally

4. What are the different types of bio technology? Explain.

The different types of bio technology are: Red bio-technology, White bio-technology and Green bio- technology.

Red Bio Technology is usually used in medical devices like antibiotics.

Green Bio Technology is used in agricultural process to grow crops more environmental friendly.

White Bio Technology is used mostly in industrial process like using a chemical reaction designing an organism

5. What is (LMO) Living Modified Organism?

Living Modified Organism means any living organism which contains

genetical material in it by using modern bio technology. It could be

sterile, injections or virus.

Usually in Bio-Technology interviews, applicants will be asked to handle a seminar about their main scientific subject.

In this scenario, applicant should check before with the HR as to who

will be the audience and what the exact skill sets are they are looking

for to fill this

position. This will help the applicant do a research on it before hand

and can get fully prepared for a seminar. The applicant should make sure

that the presentation

is well prepared, executed and tailored to audience. Make sure, you give

them good introduction about your subject but talk in brief and do not

go in detail. Talk more

about their company and business press. Find out if they have any

competitors and do research on them. You could talk about adopting their

style of working for any

improvement in this company

6. What would be your role in the organization for being a part of bio-technology team?

As a member of bio-technology team, its my responsibility to go to the

lab and do a surprise check on the samples produced, keep updating

myself from the company

presentations and websites…on the other streams or new products coming

up in new pharmacy industries. Pro-actively communicate with the

operations team on the ongoing

experiments in the industry

7. What are the challenges you face being in this industry and how do you overcome it?

The future of life science is changing; the companies need to come

creatively each time and try new research on different products

genetically and to retain its

essence and source of it. Researching on different products in the

market, and researching the scientific methods used for it would help us

in updating ourselves and

facing the new challenges of this bio-technology industry

8. What do you mean by bio ethics?

Bio ethics is the combination of analysis of social, political, ethical

and environmental consequences and implications of bio technology and

bio – medicine products

9. What are the possible dangers that bio technology and bio medicine faces on the advanced scientific methods of food products?

Applicant should be very confident in his answer as this is a very

tricky question, he/she should answer that any technology or advancement

has its own advantages and

dis advantages, it is just the way the technology is adapted and used in

the process. Yes, of course there is a certain degree of risk involved,

but we have to deal

with it being in this scientific bio technology industry. As any industry will face this quality or failure problem

10. What do you think could be the points of conflict in terms of bio ethics?

Well, I think there will be problem with people’s interest with respect

to abortion, genetic advances, right to privacy, rights of a child,

capacity to make personal

decision in their food habits asthere will be question raised for

genetically injected or used products with these bio-technology methods.

I think we should continue

to convince people by explaining the scientific approach in the interest

of retaining the good products in future and maintaining a better

environment

11. Is body itself a bio technology?

Yes, it has to be articulated as a technology. But not by nature, once

its articulated or framed in such a way, then definitely it’s a

technology. Anything which is

re-framed from a naturally occurring bio logical process is called bio technology

12. What do you mean by bio-media?

It’s a concept which means to describe the informatic reframing or

biological components and its methods and processes. Its all about the

process of identifying

biologically and looking through the lens of informatic

13. How is this bio technology useful in our day to day life?

Bio technology is used to help in solving the problem faced in our daily

products. Yogurt, wine, cheese, and antibiotics these are all not new

for human beings. This

method of bio technologypromises a better way of retaining the essence and preventing disease

14. How is the concentration of drugs in human plasma defined?

Some drugs bind extensively to plasma proteins (Warfarin binds 99%) whereas others have virtually no binding.

Extraction depends on the type of drug – there are different standard

techniques for acidic, basic, and neutral drugs – and, indeed, some

drugs need specific

extraction techniques.

It is important for you doing bioequivalence studies to know exactly the

proportion of drug extracted but such controls are again specific for

each drug and use

specific marker compounds

15. Why is buprenorphine less addictive than other opioids (like

fentanyl) – is it explainable by its strength of binding to the common

receptor, or?

Buprenorphine is what is referred to as a partial agonist – i.e. it

binds to the receptor but even at its maximum cannot give as much of an

effect as a full agonist

(such as morphine) – it is, thus, also a partial antagonist (partially inhibits the actions of full agonists).

As addiction is likely to be linked to strength of the effect of the

drug, buprenorphine has less effect and, therefore, less addiction

16. Is Phenoxyethanol harmful?

Phenoxyethanol is harmful and can be absorbed through the skin –

official sites for toxicity data, however, show little toxicity in man

and some toxicity (irritation)

with high doses in animals. Phenoxyethanol is in cosmetics as a bactericide (kills bacteria)

17. What is the definition of “Biomedical”? What topics cover the Study of Biomedical Sciences?

The term “biomedical” covers a vast range of subjects – everything that

relates biology to medicine. This can range from the obvious like

Anatomy, Biochemistry,

Physiology, Microbiology, Pharmacology, Genetics to the less obvious

like Botany (most drugs were originally derived from plants and, thus,

these is a big science

called Phytopharmacology)

18. Do you know how the dose for children is being estimated based on preclinical data?

There are a number of ways of estimating children’s doses from

preclinical (adult) data – often depends on the therapeutic index of the

drug in question (the wider the

therapeutic window the less accurate the child’s dose needs to be).

Sometimes straight weight-basis i.e. 7kg child gets 1/10 dose of 70kg

adult.

More accurate (so they say) is a dose based on body surface area

(child’s surface area is greater in proportion to its body weight than

an adult is). There are

normograms to calculate surface area from weight and height of child.

All of these may be wrong if clearance of drug in child is significantly

different from adult e.g. different metabolism or different route of

clearance

19. Which type of immunoglobulin level will increase when an individual is exposed to a parasite?

Serum IgE levels will increase and remain until the parasite is washed out from the body

20. What are allergens?

Allergens are non-parasitic antigens. They are capable of stimulating

hypersensitive reactions in allergy conditions in an individual

21. Name some common allergens associated with type-I hypersensitivity.

Penicillin, sulfonamide, eggs, milk, dust mites, animal air, vaccines etc

22. What is atopy?

The tendency to manifest localized anaphylactic reactions is called atopy

23. Who are atopic individuals?

Atopic individuals are those who are having abnormal high levels of circulating IgE and more than normal number of oesinophils

24. Where do most allergic reactions occur?

Most of them occur on mucous membrane. Allergens enter the body by the process of inhalation or ingestion

25. What is P-K reaction?

The response produced when an allergen is injected into an individual, who is sensitive is called P-K reaction

26. What are high affinity receptors?

Mast cells and basophils express high affinity receptor. The high

affinity enables it to bind with IgE, despite low serum concentration of

IgE

27. What are low affinity receptors?

Low affinity receptors play role in regulating he intensity of IgE response

28. What are primary mediators?

Primary mediators are those, which are produced before degranulation.

These primary mediators are stored in granules. Some of the primary

mediators are histamine,

heparin, proteases etc

29. What are secondary mediators?

Secondary mediators are produced after target cell activation or

released by the break down of phospholipids membrane during the process

of degarnulation. Some of the

secondary mediators are leukotrienes, various cytokines, prostaglandins etc

30. Explain in brief about histamine

It is formed by the decarboxylation of amino acid histidine. It accounts

for 10% of granule weight. This histamine binds to specific receptors

on various target cells

31. How many types of histamine receptors are there and what are they?

There are three types of histamine receptors. They are H1, H2 and H3.They has different tissue distributions

32. What is the reaction-taking place when H2 receptor binds to mast cells and basophils?

When H2 binds to mast cells and basophils it suppresses degranulation

33. Explain in brief about leukotrienes and prostaglandins

Leukotrienes and prostaglandins are formed only when the mast cell

undergo degranulation and enzymatic break down of phospholipids in the

plasma membrane.

The effects produced by them are more pronounced and long lasting than

histamine. Leukotrienes mediate mucous production and

bronchoconstriction. Prostaglandin D2

causes bronchoconstriction

34. Explain in brief about cytokines

Cytokines activate inflammatory cells such as neutrophils and

eosnophils.IL-5 is important in activation of eosnophils, IL-4 increases

IgE production by B-cells. IL-4,

Il-5, IL-6, TNF-a has been secreted by human mast cells

35. What is atopic dermatitis?

Atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory skin disease. This disease is

observed frequently in young children. There will be skin eruptions

36. What is erythroblastosis fetalis?

It is a hemolytic disease, which develops in newborn. Maternal IgG

antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the red bleed cells. This

develops when an Rh+ expresses

an Rh antigen on blood cells that the mother does not express

37. What is a rhogam?

Is an antibody that binds to any of the blood cells, enter the mother’s

blood circulation, and facilitate their clearance by activation of

B-cells and memory cell

production

38. What is type I hypersensitivity?

It is IgE mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include asthma, food allergies, eczema, hay fever etc

39. What is type II hypersensitivity?

It is IgG mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations

include erythroblastosis fetalis, hemolytic anemia, blood transfusion

reactions etc

40. What is type III hypersensitivity?

It is immune complex mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations

include rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, necrotizing etc

41. What is type IV hypersensitivity?

It is cell-mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include graft rejection, dermatitis etc

42. What is serum sickness?

When an individual is exposed to foreign serum antigen then a

combination of symptoms are produced which is called as serum sickness

43. Give some symptoms of serum sickness.

Symptoms include fever, weakness, rashes, with erythema and edema. Serum

sickness depends on the immune complexes formed and the size of the

complexes

44. Name some Infectious diseases.

Some of the Infectious diseases are Malaria, meningitis, trypanosomiasis, hepatitis etc…

45. Name some autoimmune diseases.

Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, good pasture’s syndrome

46. How many types of hypersensitive reactions are there?

There are four types of hypersensitive reactions, they are:

Type I hypersensitive reaction

Type II hypersensitive reaction

Type III hypersensitive reaction

Type IV hypersensitive reaction

47. What are the steps in bacterial infection?

There are four steps in bacterial infection. They are:

Attachment to host

Proliferation

Invasion of host tissue

Toxin-induced damage to host cell

48. What is the disease caused by Rotavirus?

The disease caused by rotavirus is infantile diarrhea

49. What is the disease caused by Sabia virus?

Brazilian haemorrhagic

50. What is the disease caused by Ebola virus?

Ebola haemorrhagic fever

51. What is the disease caused by Hepatitis C?

Non-A, Non-B hepatitis are commonly transmitted via transfusion

52. What is the disease caused by toxin producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus?

Toxic shock syndrome

53. What is the disease caused by HIV?

The disease caused by HIV is AIDS

54. What is the disease caused by Influenza A subtype H5N1?

Avian influenza

55. What is the disease caused by Nipah virus and West Nile virus?

Encephalitis

56. What is the disease caused by Hepatitis E?

Enteric Non-A, Non-B hepatitis

57. What is the disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi?

Lyme disease

58. What is the disease caused by Cryptosporidium parvum?

Acute chronic diarrhea

59. What is the disease caused by Hantavirus?

Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome

60. What is the disease caused by Helicobacter pylori?

Peptic ulcers

61. What is the disease caused by Guanarito virus?

Venezuelan haemorrhagic fever

62. What is the disease caused by Encephalitozzon hellem?

Conjunctivitis, disseminated disease

63. What is the disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus-I?

T-cell lymphoma

64. What is the disease caused by Escherichia coli 0157:H7?

Haemorrhagic colitis

65. What is the disease caused by Vibrio cholerae 0139?

New strain of epidemic cholerae

66. What is the disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus II?

Hairy cell leukemia

67. What is the disease caused by Campylobacter jejuni?

Enteric diseases

68. What is the disease caused by Legionella pneumophilia?

Legionnaire’s disease

69. What is the disease caused by Bartonella henselae?

Cat scratch disease

70. What is the disease caused by Human herpes virus – 8?

It is associated with Kaposi sarcoma in AIDS patients

71. What is the disease caused by TSE causing agents?

New variant of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

72. What is the disease caused by influenza ‘A’ subtype H9N2?

New strain of human influenza

73. What happens when gastrointestinal exposure occurs?

Gastrointestinal exposure results in bloody diarrhea, ulcers in ileum or cecum and sepsis and it is very difficult to diagnosis

74. What happens when cutaneous exposure occurs?

Cutaneous exposure results in skin lesions

75. How passive immunity is acquired?

Passive immunity is acquired through natural maternal antibodies, antitoxin, and immunoglobulin

76. How is active immunity acquired?

Active immunity is acquired through vaccines, attenuated organisms, toxoid, natural infection, cloned microbial antigens, etc

77. Normally at what age vaccination of children begins.

Vaccination of children begins at the age of 2 months

78. What is a toxoid?

Inactivating the toxin with formaldehyde is toxoid

79. Why purified macromolecules are used as vaccines?

To avoid the risk associated with attenuated and killed whole organism vaccines

80.Name some purified macromolecules derived from pathogens.

They are capsular polysaccharides, inactivated exotoxins and recombinant microbial antigens

81. What is the full form of AIDS?

Full form of AIDS is acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome

82. How AIDS is caused?

It is caused by the infection of HIV 1 i.e. human immunodeficiency virus

83. What is a retrovirus?

It is a class of viruses having RNA genome and reverse transcriptase enzyme within virus cuspid

84. What is a provirus?

It is the DNA representing, the genome of virus that has been integrated into the DNA of the host

85. How HIV infection is mainly spread?

It is mainly spread by sexual contact, blood transfers and from HIV infected mother to child

86. What is the treatment for HIV?

Anti-retroviral drugs are given. They lower the viral load and gives

relief from infection, but it is not permanent it is temporary relief

i.e. it cannot cure

87. What does HIV results?

HIV results in impairment of immune function by depletion oh CD4+ T cells

88. What does immunodeficiency results?

Immunodeficiency results in failure of one or more components of immune system

89. What does myeloid immunodeficiency cause?

Myeloid immunodeficiency causes phagocytic function, which is impaired.

Those who are affected with this will suffer with increase in

susceptibility to bacterial

infection

90. What do most vaccines function as?

Most of the vaccines prevent disease but not infection

91. What are major successful vaccines?

Major successful vaccines are live attenuated and heat killed vaccines

92. What is the current treatment given to AIDS?

Current treatment given to AIDS is HAART (highly active anti retroviral therapy).It is a combination therapy

93. What does HAART do?

HAART will lower the viral load and improves the health of the patients who are suffering with AIDS

94. What is the first overt indication of AIDS?

The first overt indication of AIDS may be infection with the fungus

Candida albicans, which causes sores in the mouth and in women

vulvovaginal yeast infection is

formed that will not respond to the treatment given

95. How viral load can be measured?

Viral load is measured by PCR based techniques

96. What is an abzyme?

It is a monoclonal antibody, which has catalytic activity

97. What is adoptive transfer?

The ability to participate in the immune response by the process of transplantation of cells is adoptive transfer

98. What is an agglutinin?

A substance can mediate clumping of the cells or particles

99. What is agglutination?

Clumping of particles or cells is called agglutination

100. What is an agretope?

The region of an antigenic peptide, which binds to MCH molecule, is known as agretope

<h3><em>BIOTECHNOLOGY Questions and Answers ::</em></h3>

101. What is antigenic drift?

Series of point mutations that cause minor antigenic variations in the pathogens

102. What is apoptosis?

Changes those are associated with programmed cell death, including

release of apoptotic bodies, blebbing, and nuclear fragmentation

103. What is autograft?

Grafting of tissues from one part of the body to another in the same individual is called as autograft

104. What is antigenic competition?

Antigenic competition is the inhibition of immune response to an antigen by immunization with different antigens

105. What is bradykinin?

A peptide producing inflammatory response

106. What is a bispecific antibody?

It is made by cross-linking two different antibodies or by fusion of two hybridomas, which produce monoclonal antibodies

107. What is a booster?

Boosters are given to stimulate immunological memory response

108. What is BCG?

It is an attenuated form of Mycobacterium bovis. It is used as vaccine and as an adjuvant compound

109. What is chronic lymphocytic leukemia?

In this type if leukemia cancerous cells are continuously produced

110. What is an effector cell?

Any cell that can mediate immune response is called as effector cell

111. What is an effector response?

It is the response produced after recognition and binding of an antigen by antibody

112. What is erythropoiesis?

Generation of red blood cells is called as erythropoiesis

113. What are interferons?

Interferons are small glycoproteins produced by virus-infected cells

that inhibit viral infection. They are heterogeneous. Gamma interferons

induce MHC class II

antigens in macrophages, B cells, and endothelial cells

114. What is immuno adsorption?

It is removal of an antigen or antibody from a sample by the process of

adsorption, to which the complimentary antigen or antibody is bound

115. What is immunofluorescence?

Staining cells or tissues with fluorescent antibodies and visualize them under a fluorescent microscope

116. What is an immunotoxin?

Immunotoxin is produced by conjugating or combining an antibody with highly toxic agent

117. What is immune complex?

It is a complex of antibody bound to antigen, which includes complement components

118. What are intracellular pathogens?

These microbial agents grow within a cell.

Example: Viruses and intracellular bacteria like Salmonella

119. What is isotope switching?

It is conversion of antibody class to another resulting from genetic

rearrangement of heavy chain constant region genes in B cells. Isotope

switching is also called as

class switching

120. What is lysogeny?

The condition in which viral genome that is provirus associated with

host genome in a way that the viral genes remain in unexpressed state

What is microglial cell?

Macrophage found in central nervous system is called microglial cell

What are MHC molecules?

Proteins that are encoded by major histocompatibility complex

What is a myeloma cell?

It is a cancerous plasma cell

What is myeloma protein?

It is a monoclonal immunoglobulin, which is produced by myeloma cell

What is multiple sclerosis?

It is an autoimmune disease, which affects the central nervous system

What is a pathogen?

Pathogen is a disease-causing organism

What is a stem cell?

It is a cell, from which differentiated cells derive

What is tapasin?

It is a protein that is associated with class I MHC molecules

What is a vaccine?

It is a preparation of antigenic material used to induce immunity against pathogens

What are tumor antigens?

Tumor antigens are cell surface proteins, which are present on the

surface of tumor cells that induce cell-mediated immune response

Name the parasite, which causes malaria?

Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium falcifarum

Name the parasite, which causes leishmaniasis.

Leishmania species

Name the parasite, which causes chagas disease.

Trypanosoma cruzi

Name the parasite, which causes sleeping sickness or trypanosomiasis.

Trypanosoma rhodense, Trypanosoma gambiense

What is the mechanism of host defense in malaria?

Blocks invasion and opsonises for phagocytosis

What is the mechanism of host defense in leishmaniasis?

Restrict the spread of disease

What is the mechanism of host defense in chagas disease?

Lysis in presence of compliment

What is the mechanism of host defense in trypanosomiasis?

Opsonises for phagocytosis

What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule IgA?

It is Humoral response.

Activity: Blocks binding of virus to host cells, thus preventing infection

What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecules IgG, IgM and IgA?

It is Humoral response. Activity: Blocks fusion of viral envelope to the cell plasma membrane

What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule IgG, IgM?

It is Humoral response. Activity: enhances phagocytosis by opsonization

What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule IgM?

It is Humoral response. Activity: Agglutination

What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule compliment activated by IgG or IgM?

It is Humoral response. Activity: Mediated opsonization

What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule IFN ? secreted by TH or TC cell?

Cell mediated immune response.

Activity: Direct antiviral activity

What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule cytotoxic T cells?

Cell mediated immune response.

Activity: Kills virus infected self-cells

What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule natural killer cell macrophages?

Cell mediated immune response.

Activity: Kills virus infected cells by ADCC

What is the host defense mechanism shown if an attachment is made to host cell?

Blockage of attachment by secretory IgA antibodies

What is the host defense mechanism shown if the infection is through proliferation?

Phagocytosis compliment mediated lysis localized inflammatory response

What is the host defense mechanism shown if the infection is through invasion of host tissues?

Antibody mediated agglutination

What is the host defense mechanism shown if the infection is through toxin-induced damage of host cells?

Neutralization of toxin by antibodies

What is an exon?

The region of a gene that contains coding sequences for a polypeptide is called Exon

What is an intron?

The nucleotide sequence present between exons of a gene. They can be removed by the process of splicing

What is immunolabeling?

Labeling molecules by the use of antibodies bound to another molecule that serves as labels for an antigen antibody complex

What is immunoblotting?

This is a technique to determine the presence of an antigen by the

reaction of labeled antibodies to the antigen. This is done after

separating the antigens according

to the size or charge by gel electrophoresis

What is i-gene?

A bacterial gene codes for lac-operon repressor protein

What is an iso antigen?

It is produced only by some members of a species but not the others.

These are capable of eliciting immune response in the individuals that

lack the antigen

What is the other name of isoantigen?

The other name is Alloantigen

Give an example for alloantigen.

Blood group antigens are alloantigens

Name some features of a secondary immune response that distinguish it from primary immune response

Secondary immune response requires an amplified population of memory

cells. Response is more rapid compared to primary immune response. It

achieves higher levels than

primary response

Describe major events in the inflammatory response.

The following are the major events in the inflammatory response: The

diameter of the capillaries increases in the affected region and their

permeability, which

facilitates influx of white blood cells

What does the following sentence means? “T cell is said to be class I restricted”.

It means that they can recognize the antigen, which is, associated with class I MHC molecules

Name the assay method for IgG in serum.

The method is ELISA

Name the assay method for compliment component C3 on glomerular basement membrane.

Immunofluorescence

Name the assay method for horsemeat combination of hamburger

Agglutination

Name the assay method for insulin in serum

ELISA or RIA

How B cell hybridomass are formed?

They are formed by the fusion of antigen primed B cells with cancerous plasma cells

Expand cell line HL-60.

Human myeloid leukemia cell line

Give brief description of cell line L-929

It is mouse-fibroblast cell line used in DNA transfection. Moreover, it is used to assay tumor necrosis factor

What is the significance of cell line COS-1?

It is used in DNA transfection

Give brief description of jurkat cell line

It is human T-cell leukemia, which secretes IL-2

Give the significance of P-815.

It is used as a target to access killing by cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Give the significance of YAC-1.

It is used as target for natural killer cells

Give the significance of CTLL-2.

It is used to assay IL-2 production

Give the description of SP2/O cell line and its significance.

It is non-secreting mouse myeloma and used as a fusion partner for hybridoma secretion

What is the target antigen for T cell leukemia?

The antigen for T cell is CD5

What is the target antigen for B cell lymphoma?

Antigen for B cell is CD20

What is the target antigen for anti idiotype tumor antigen?

Immunoglobulin

What are exogenous antigens?

Antigens, which are produced outside the host cell, are called exogenous antigens

What is the target antigen for acute myeloblastic leukemia?

CD45 is for acute myloblastic leukemia

What is the target antigen for colon cancer?

Glycoprotein

What is the target antigen for breast and ovarian tumors?

Cell surface EGF binding protein

What is the target antigen for neuroectodermal tumors?

Glycolipids associated with neural tissues

What is the target antigen for breast cancer?

Glycoprotein

What is autograft?

It is nothing but grafting self-tissue from one body site to another in the same individual.

Ex.: In burnt cases

What is isograft?

It is nothing but grafting between genetically identical individuals

What is allograft?

It is nothing but grafting between genetically different individuals of the same species

What is xenograft?

It is nothing but grafting between different species

What is the self-antigen for good pasture’s syndrome?

Renal and lung basement membranes

What is the self-antigen for Addison’s disease?

Adrenal cells

What is the self-antigen for perinicious anemia?

Gastric perietal cells

What is the self-antigen for grave’s disease?

Thyroid stimulating receptor

What is the self-antigen for rheumatoid arthritis?

Connective tissue, IgG

What is the self-antigen for scleroderma?

Heart, lungs, kidney, nuclei, gastro intestinal tract

What is the self-antigen for myocardial infarction?

The self-antigen is Heart

What is the self-antigen for insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?

Pancreatic beta cells

What is the self-antigen for autoimmune haemolytic anemia?

RBC membrane proteins

What is a monoclonal antibody?

It is an antibody produced from a single antibody-producing cell

How monoclonal antibodies are produced?

Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridoma clones

What are polyclonal antibodies?

Antibodies of different specificities, which react to the same antigen, are called polyclonal antibodies

How are the polyclonal antibodies produced?

They are produced by different plasma cell clones

What is the natural toxin found in the endosperm of castor?

The toxin found is Ricin

What is immunopurification?

Purifying antigens present in small quantities as a mixture by interacting an antibody to an antigen

Name the major types of interferons.

1) Interferon a

2) Interferon ?

3) Interferon ?

How Interferon a is produced?

It is produced by leukocytes or WBCs

How Interferon ? is produced?

It is produced by fibroblasts

How Interferon ? is produced?

It is produced by stimulated T lymphocyte

What is interferon induced antiviral state?

Interferon reacting with interferon receptors of a cell, after which the

cell enters in a state called interferon, induced antiviral state

What are endogenous antigens?

Antigens, which are produced within the host cell, are called endogenous antigens

What is clonal selection?

Proliferation of B cells in response to interaction with an antigen is called clonal selection

What is naïve B cell?

Mature B cell is called naïve B cell

What are altered self-cells?

The cytotoxic T lymphocytes which kill foreign antigens complexes with MHC I molecules are called altered self-cells

What are immunoglobulin folds?

Immunoglobulin domains are folded into compact structures, which are called as immunoglobulin folds

What is exotoxin?

Toxin produced by a microorganism, which is released into surrounding fluid, is called exotoxin

What is the function CD4 antigen?

It acts as a co receptor for MHC class II restricted T cell activation; receptor for HIV

What is a thymocyte?

It is a developing T cell, which is present in the thymus

What is secreted immunoglobulin?

It is a form of antibody, which is secreted by cells of B lineage

What is an alveolar macrophage?

Macrophage, which is found in alveolus of the lung, is alveolar macrophage

What is clonal energy?

It is a state, in which the antigen cannot activate the cells.

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