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BSNL Placement Papers-Free Download

BSNL Placement Papers-Free Download

1. For reflection co-efficient |r| = 1/2 VSWR is

(A) 2

(B) 3 (Ans)

(C) C

(D) 8

2. Radiation resistance of a half wave dipole is

(A) 73 ? (Ans)

(B) 377 ?

(C) 300 ?

(D) 50 ?

3. Which of the following is not Maxwell's equation ?

(A) B = ?H

(B) E = D/?

(C) E = J/?

(D) E = ?D (Ans)

4. A medium is called isotropic when

(A) ? is zero

(B) ? is a scalar constant (Ans)

(C) ? = ?

(D) ? = ??

5. Which of the following is not a wide band antenna

(A) marconi (Ans)

(B) helical

(C) rhombic

(D) folded dipole

6. The wave which "lies down and dies" is called

(A) ground wave (Ans)

(B) sky wave

(C) space wave

(D) spherical wave

7. When cathode is positive with respect to anode in an SCR, the number of p-n junction is

(A) 1

(B) 2 (Ans)

(C) 3

(D) 4

8. The impulse response and the excitation function of a linar time invariant causal system are shown in Fig. (a) and (b) respectively. The output of system at t = 2 sec is equal to

(A) 0

(B) 1/2 (Ans)

(C) 3/2

(D) 2

Solution : y (y) = f x (t) h (t - t) dt

Out Put = 1/2 * 2 1/2 = 1/2

9. The initial contents of the 4-bit serial-in-parallel-out right-shift, Shift Register shown in Fig.is 0110. After three clock pulses are applied, the contents of the Shift Register will be

(A) 0000

(B) 0101

(C) 1010 (Ans)

(D) 1111

Solution : 4-bit SIPO

1 XOR (1, 0) = 1 1011

2 XOR (1, 1) = 0 0101

3 XOR (0, 1) = 1 1010

contents will be 1010.

10. Fig. shows the circuit of a gate in the Resistor Transistor Logic (RTL) family. The circuit represents a

(A) NAND

(B) AND

(C) NOR

(D) OR (Ans)

Vi1 Vi2 Vx V0 Q1 Q2 Q3

L L H L OFF OFF ON

L H L H OFF ON OFF

H L L H ON OFF OFF

H H L H ON ON OFF

The circuit represent an OR. Hence choice is d.

11. The logic realized by the circuit shown in Fig.

(A) F = A . C

(B) F = A + C (Ans)

(C) F = B . C

(D) F = B + C

F = does not depend on B.

F = A C + A C = A ? C

12. A Lissajous pattern, as shown in Fig below, is observed on the screen of a CRO when voltage of frequencies fx and fy are applied to the x and y plates respectively. fx : fy is then equal to

(A) 3 : 2

(B) 1 : 2 (Ans)

(C) 2 : 3

(D) 2 : 1

Solution : fx/ff = Points of tangency to vertical line/Points of tangency to horizontal line = 1/2

or fx : fy = 1 : 2

13. In the transistor circuit shown in Fig. below, collector-to-ground voltage is + 20 V. Which of the following is the probable cause of error ?

(A) Collector-emitter terminals shorted

(B) Emitter to ground connection open (Ans)

(C) 10 k ? resistor open

(D) collector-base terminals shorted

1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
a. Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
b. Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the pointing vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
c. The pointing vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
d. The pointing vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.

2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
a. Polarization
b. Conductivity
c. Structural homogeneties
d. Ionization

3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon
a. Boron
b. Indium
c. Germanium
d. Antimony

4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
a. High thermal conductivity and high melting point
b.Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
c. High thermal conductivity and low melting point
d. Low thermal conductivity and high melting point

5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
a. infrared region
b. ultraviolet region
c. visible region
d. x-ray region

6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
a. high and high
b. low and high
c. high and low
d. low and low

7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress
a. odd harmonics
b. even harmonics
c. fundamental component
d. dc component

8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
a. mutual inductance between two coils only
b. self inductances of the two coils only
c. mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
d. none

9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
a. paper
b. rubber
c. ceramic
d. Mylar

10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
a. always positive
b. always negative
c. sometime positive, sometime negative
d. numerically less than its kinetic energy

11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no-
a. channel
b. gate
c. P-N junctions
d. substrate

12. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that
a. it is more sensitive
b. it is more linear
c. it is less temperature dependent
d. it's cost is low

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
a. thermally generated electrons and holes
b. diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c. migration of minority carriers across the junction
d. flow of drift current

14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
a. recombine with holes in the base
b. recombine in the emitter itself
c. pass through the base to the collector
d. are stopped by the junction barrier

15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is-
a. 0.5
b. 0
c. 1.0
d. 0.8

16. A UJT can
a. be triggered by any one of it's three terminals
b. not be triggered
c. be triggered by two of its three terminal only
d. be triggered by all of its terminals only

17. An SCR can only be turned off via it's
a. cathode
b. anode
c. gates
d. none

18. Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to
a. increase the recombination rate
b. reduce the recombination rate
c. make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
d. make silicon semi-metal

19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have
a. (b + n) links
b. b-n + 1 links
c. b-n-1 links
d. b + n + 1 links

20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
a. 7
b. 9
c. 10
d. 45

21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
a. an output power which is one-quarter of the input power
b. an output power which is one-half of the input power
c. an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
d. an output power which is 0.707 of the input power

22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer-
a. the terminals are kept shorted
b. critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
c. the terminals are kept open circuited
d. it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals

23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2?
1. R1 = 147W
2. R1 = 153W
3. R2 = 1.5W
4. R2 = 3750W
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4

24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is
a. 49w
b. 60w
c. 70w
d. 140w

25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

26. Consider the following statement for a 2 -port network
1. Z11 = Z22
2. h12 = h21
3. Y12 =-Y21
4. BC-AD =-1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. 4 alone is correct

27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
a. will become half
b. will remain high
c. will become double
d. cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known

28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density d in vacuum is-
Ans. 5.4x109xQ2/r where Q=4/3(pie.r3d

29. Maxwell's divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by
Ans. y

30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it's radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it's radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
a. R/2 ohms
b. R ohms
c. 2R ohms
d. 4R ohms

1.Are you attending ----- reception today
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

2.She wants to become ----- engineer
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

(Qn No:3-5)Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

3. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.

4.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. An Indian ship
B. laden with merchandise
C. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
D. No error.

5.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. I could not put up in a hotel
B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant.
D. No error.

(Qn No:6-8)Find the correctly spelt words.

6.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. Efficient
B. Treatmeant
C. Beterment
D. Employd

7.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. Foreign
B. Foreine
C. Fariegn
D. Forein

8.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. Ommineous
B. Omineous
C. Ominous
D. Omenous

(Qn No:9-12)In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

9.The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
A. hell bent on getting
B. hell bent for getting
C. hell bent upon getting
D. No improvement

10.When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.
A. into crushing
B. in crushing
C. without crushing
D. No improvement

11.If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed time.
A. If the room was brighter
B. If the room are brighter
C. Had the room been brighter
D. No improvement

12.his powerful desire brought about his downfall.
A. His intense desire
B. His desire for power
C. His fatal desire
D. No improvement

(Qn No:13-15)In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

13. CORPULENT
A. Lean
B. Gaunt
C. Emaciated
D. Obese

14. BRIEF
A. Limited
B. Small
C. Little
D. Short

15.EMBEZZLE
A. Misappropriate
B. Balance
C. Remunerate
D. Clear

General Aptitude:

1. A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is :
A. 1/4
B. 1/10
C. 7/15
D. 8/15

2. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 12 days
B. 15 days
C. 16 days
D. 18 days

3.The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25

4.In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?
A. 30%
B. 70%
C. 100%
D. 250%

5.The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
A. 4 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. None of these

6.A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth". If the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
A. 14 years
B. 19 years
C. 33 years
D. 38 years

7. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
A. 6.25
B. 6.5
C. 6.75
D. 7

8.A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?
A. Rs. 4991
B. Rs. 5991
C. Rs. 6001
D. Rs. 6991

9.A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 21
D. 25

10.A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The first contains 25% water and the rest milk. The second contains 50% water. How much milk should he mix from each of the containers so as to get 12 litres of milk such that the ratio of water to milk is 3 : 5?
A. 4 litres, 8 litres
B. 6 litres, 6 litres
C. 5 litres, 7 litres
D. 7 litres, 5 litres

11.Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13

12.The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14. The larger of the two numbers is:
A. 276
B. 299
C. 322
D. 345

13. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
A. Rs. 650
B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 698
D. Rs. 700

14.Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
A. Rs. 6400
B. Rs. 6500
C. Rs. 7200
D. Rs. 7500
E. None of these

15.How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest?
A. 3.5 years
B. 4 years
C. 4.5 years
D. 5 years

Financial Management/Tax:

Q(1).The appropriate objective of an enterprise is;
A.Maximisation of sale
B. Maximisation of owners wealth.
C.Maximisation of profits.
D. None of these.

Q(2). The job of a finance manager is confined to
A.Raising funds
B. Management of cash
C.Raising of funds and their effective utilization.
D. None of these.

Q(3). Financial decision involve;
A.Investment ,financing and dividend decision
B. Investment ,financing and sales decision
C.Financing , dividend and cash decision
D. None of these.

Q(4). Net Profit Ratio Signifies:
A. Operational Profitability
B. Liquidity Position
C. Solvency
D.Profit

Q(5). Working Capital Turnover measures the relationship of Working Capital with:
A.Fixed Assets
B.Sales
C.Purchases
D.Stock.

Q(6). Dividend Payout Ratio is:
A.PAT Capital
B.DPS/ EPS
C. Pref. Dividend/PAT
D. Pref. Dividend/Equity Dividend

Q(7). Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inventory with:
A. Average Sales
B.Cost of Goods Sold
C.Total Purchases
D. Total Assets

Q(8). The term 'EVA' is used for:
A.Extra Value Analysis
B.Economic Value Added
C.Expected Value Analysis
D.Engineering Value Analysis

Q(9). Return on Investment may be improved by:
A.Increasing Turnover
B. Reducing Expenses
C.Increasing Capital Utilization
D.All of the above

Q(10). In Current Ratio, Current Assets are compared with:
A.Current Profit
B.Current Liabilities
C.Fixed Assets
D.Equity Share Capital

Q(11). There is deterioration in the management of working capital of XYZ Ltd. What does it refer to?
A.That the Capital Employed has reduced,
B.That the Profitability has gone up,
C.That debtors collection period has increased
D.That Sales has decreased.

Q(12). Debt to Total Assets Ratio can be improved by:
A.Borrowing More
B.Issue of Debentures
C.Issue of Equity Shares
D.Redemption of Debt.

Q(13). Ratio of Net Income to Number of Equity Shares known as:
A.Price Earnings Ratio
B. Net Profit Ratio,
C.Earnings per Share
D. Dividend per Share.

Q(14). A Current Ratio of Less than One means:
A.Current Liabilities < Current Assets
B.Fixed Assets > Current Assets
C.Current Assets < Current Liabilities
D. Share Capital > Current Assets

Q(15). A firm has Capital of 10,00,000; Sales of 5,00,000; Gross Profit of . 2,00,000 and Expenses of . 1,00,000. What is the Net Profit Ratio?
A.20%
B. 50%
C.10%
D.40%

Q(16). Suppliers and Creditors of a firm are interested in
A.Profitability Position
B.Liquidity Position
C.Market Share Position
D. Debt Position.

Q(17). Which of the following is a measure of Debt Service capacity of a firm?
A.Current Ratio
B.Acid Test Ratio
C. Interest Coverage Ratio
D. Debtors Turnover

Q(18). Gross Profit Ratio for a firm remains same but the Net Profit Ratio is decreasing. The reason for such behavior could be:
A. Increase in Costs of Goods Sold
B.If Increase in Expense
C. Increase in Dividend
D.Decrease in Sales.

Q(19). Which of the following statements is correct?
A. A Higher Receivable Turnover is not desirable,
B. Interest Coverage Ratio depends upon Tax Rate,
C.Increase in Net Profit Ratio means increase in Sales,
D. Lower Debt-Equity Ratio means lower Financial Risk.

Q(20). Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity boo would be:
A. 0.80
B.0.25
C. 1.00
D.0.75

Q(21). Which of the following helps analysing return to equity Shareholders?
A. Return on Assets
B. Earnings Per Share
C. Net Profit Ratio
D.Return on Investment.

Q(22). In Inventory Turnover calculation, what is taken in the numerator?
A. Sales
B.Cost of Goods Sold
C.Opening Stock
D. Closing Stock.

Q(23). Financial Planning deals with:
A. Preparation of Financial Statements
B.Planning for a Capital Issue
C. Preparing Budgets
D.All of the above

Q(24). Financial planning starts with the preparation of:
A. Master Budget
B. Cash Budget
C. Balance Sheet
D.None of the above.

Q(25). Process of Financial Planning ends with:
A. Preparation of Projected Statements
B. Preparation of Actual Statements
C. Comparison of Actual with Projected
D. Ordering the employees that projected figures m come true.

Question Bank in Computer Science

Multiple Choice Questions

1 . A computer derives its basic strength from

(a) speed

(b) accuracy

(c) memory

(d) all of the above (Ans)

(e) None of the above.

2 . Modern computers compared to earlier computers are

(a) faster and larger

(b) less reliable

(c) larger and stronger

(d) slower but more reliable

(e) faster and smaller (Ans)

3. The use of computer for business applications is attractive because of its

(a) accuracy

(b) reliability

(c) speed

(d) secret code facility

(e) All of the above (Ans)

4. A computer is capable of performing almost any task, provided that it can be

(a) coded

(b) memorized

(c) analyzed

(d) reduced to a series of logical steps (Ans)

(e) changed top mathematics equation

5. A BIT represents a

(a) decimal digit

(b) octal digit

(c) binary digit (Ans)

(d) hexa decimal digit

6. A computer has very high speed, accuracy and reliability. Its intelligence quotient could be of the order of

(a) 100

(b) 0 (Ans)

(c) 50

(d) 200

(e) 99.99

7. Computer can not do anything without a

(a) chip

(b) memory

(c) output device

(d) program (Ans)

(e) None of the above

8. A computer possesses information

(a) as directed by the operator

(b) automatically (Ans)

(c) at once

(d) gradually and eventually

(e) by truncating

9. Pick up the false statement

(a) computer can manipulate both numeric and non-numeric symbols

(b) computer errors can usually be traced to faulty programs or inaccurate input data

(c) the facts or informational raw materials represented by numeric and non-numeric symbols are called information (Ans)

(d) the space in the primary storage section is divided into four areas: input, working, storage, output and program storage.

(e) Information is the relevant knowledge that results from the processing and arranging of data in an ordered and useful form.

10. Processors of all computers, whether micro, mini or mainframe must have

(a) ALU

(b) primary storage

(c) control Unit

(d) all of the above (Ans)

(e) None of the above.

11. Pick up the correct statement about computers

(a) computers process data with human intervention after the program has been fed

(b) all comparisons are made in the control section

(c) the arithmetic-logic section of the CPU selects, interprets and executes the program steps.

(d) the secondary storage devices are usually connected on line to the CPU but for accepting data from them or returning data to them, human intervention is required

(e) computers have the built-in ability to obey different types of instructions. (Ans)

12. Real time computing is possible because of the following characteristic of computer

(a) storage capability

(b) high speed (Ans)

(c) accuracy

(d) versatility

(e) automatic in execution

13. Pick out the wrong statement about modern computer systems

(a) these are simple and easy to take care of

(b) even beginners, untrained persons can safely handle them (Ans)

(c) they require a highly disciplined approach

(d) it is important to understand the proper overall procedures must be followed

(e) the negligent use of a computer system will almost always introduce time bombs into the system.

14. A collection of eight bits is called:

(a) byte (Ans)

(b) word

(c) record

(d) file

(e) None of the above

15. Choose the incorrect statement about micro computers, mini-computers, etc.

(a) a microcomputer can be placed on a single silicon chip

(b) a minicomputer can have more processing capability than a mainframe model

(c) a microcomputer chip performs the arithmetic-logic and control functions of a microcomputer

(d) ROM chips may be used in micros ;to permanently store program instruction

(e) most micros use rigid disk storage devices rather than floppy disk drives. (Ans)

16. Control Unit of a digital computer is often called the

(a) lock

(b) nerve center (Ans)

(c) ICs

(d) all of the above

(e) None of the above

17. Pick up the correct statement

(a) most mainframes are 48-bit machines

(b) thousands of super computers are currently being built

(c) super-computers are usually designed to process accounting applications

(d) mainframes may have multi-processor components that permit several tasks to be processed at the same instant in time (Ans)

(e) minicomputers can not use high speed buffer storage components and are thus always slower than mainframe models.

18. The following acronym recognizes the fact that "computer errors" can usually be traced to incorrect input data or unreliable programs

(a) IGO (Ans)

(b) FIFO

(c) LIFO

(d) DASD

(e) ROM

19. Group of instructions that directs a computer is called

(a) storage

(b) memory (Ans)

(c) logic

(d) program

(e) None of the above

20. Which of the following does not describe one or more characteristics of a computer?

(a) electronic

(b) external storage

(c) stored program

(d) program modification at execution (Ans)

(e) All of the above are characteristics.

21. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) the smart approach to using computers is to write programs

(b) knowledge of the system development life cycle is not important to operators who use computers without programming

(c) hands-on exposure to the computer is not helpful to those who write programs

(d) personal computer have been an important contributing factor in the movement towards using computers without programming (Ans)

(e) None of the above is true

22. Which can read data and convert them to a form that a computer can use?

(a) logic

(b) storage

(c) control

(d) input device (Ans)

(e) output device

23 . Software instruction intended to satisfy a user's specific processing needs are called

(a) system software

(b) a microcomputer

(c) documentation

(d) applications software (Ans)

(e) All of the above

24. Which kind of hardware is used the most in the input phase of a computer based information system?

(a) keyboard (Ans)

(b) printer

(c) monitor

(d) hard disk

(e) floppy disk

25 . Which of the following is not a factor when categorizing a computer

(a) amount of main memory the CPU can use

(b) capacity of the storage devices

(c) cost of the system

(d) where it was purchased (Ans)

(e) speed of the output device

26 . Which of the following is the most powerful type of computer?

(a) super micro

(b) super conductor

(c) microcomputer

(d) super computer (Ans)

(e) megaframe

27. Which of the following people probably has the least amount of technical knowledge ?

(a) programmer

(b) user (Ans)

(c) system analyst

(d) computer operator

(e) computer professional

28. Which kind of storage device cab be carried around?

(a) floppy disk (Ans)

(b) hard disk

(c) system cabinet

(d) hard disk drive

(e) floppy disk drive

29. Which of the following terms applies to communication between separate computer systems?

(a) computer literacy

(b) power supply

(c) applications software

(d) connectivity (Ans)

(e) None of the above

30. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) consists of:

(a) input, output and processing

(b) control unit, primary storage & secondary storage

(c) control unit, arithmetic-logic unit, primary storage (Ans)

(d) control unit, processing, primary storage

(e) None of the above

31 . People typically interface with a computer based system when:

(a) information must be output

(b) data must be input

(c) information must be reviewed the computer needs a direction (or instruction) in order to process data

(d) All of the above

(Ans : e)

32 . The principle advantage of the centralized approach to organizing a computer facility is :

(a) cost-effectiveness

(b) processing activities are easier to coordinate

(c) Processing activities are easier to control

(d) processing statements can be enforced

(e) All of the above (Ans)

33 . The fifth generation digital computer will be

(a) extremely low cost

(b) very expensive

(c) versatility

(d) artificial intelligence (Ans)

(e) None of the above

34. To be information, data must be

(a) factual

(b) relevant

(c) news

(d) all of the above (Ans)

(e) None of the above

35 . A data system for calculating measures used in statistical inference is an example of a

(a) teleprocessing system

(b) data management system

(c) computing system (Ans)

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

36 . For the purposes of defining data needs, a responsibility area is

(a) marketing

(b) administration

(c) personal (Ans)

(d) all of the above

(e) None of the above

37. Which is widely used in academic testing?

(a) MICR

(b) POS

(c) OCR

(d) OMR (Ans)

(e) None of the above

38. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system are called:

(a) entry codes

(b) passwords (Ans)

(c) security commands

(d) code words

39 . A factor which might cause an individual to consider using a computer in criminal activities is :

(a) the computer's access to large sums to money

(b) the speed with which the crime can be accomplished

(c) EFTS (Electronic Funds Transfer System)

(d) All of the above (Ans)

40 . EBCDIC can code up to how may different characters ?

(a) 816

(b) 32

(c) 64

(d) 256

(Ans : e)

41 . Which of the following statements is true?

(a) the installation of a computer is favorably received by all employees

(b) some form of training is necessary for employees who will work with computers (Ans)

(c) computers are portrayed solely as society's benefactor

(d) a business person is only interested in the computer's accuracy.

42. Which is considered a direct entry input device?

(a) optical scanner

(b) mouse

(c) light pen

(d) digitizer

(e) All of the above (Ans)

43. The daily processing of corrections to customer accounts best exemplifies the processing mode of :

(a) batch processing (Ans)

(b) real-time processing

(c) interactive processing

(d) All of the above

44 . The data processing job expected to further decreases in the 1990s is that of :

(a) keypuncher (Ans)

(b) data entry clerk

(c) computer operator

(d) programmer

45. Which is a unit of measurement used with computer systems?

(a) byte

(b) kilobyte

(c) megabyte

(d) gigabyte

(e) All of the above (Ans)

46. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) analysts usually work alone and sometimes as part of a team

(b) most systems projects are completed in 6 12 weeks

(c) an analyst's primary concern is the development of software

(d) analysts evaluate data flow through an organization (Ans)

47. In computer terminology, information means

(a) raw data

(b) data in more useful or intelligible form (Ans)

(c) alphanumeric data

(d) program

48. A computer programmer

(a) does all the thinking for a computer (Ans)

(b) can enter input data quickly

(c) can operate all types of computer equipment

(d) can draw only flowchart

49. A character is represented in EBCDIC by:

(a) one bit

(b) four bits

(c) eight bits (Ans)

(d) sixteen bits

(e) None of the above

50 . Most of the errors blamed on computers are actually due to

(a) programming errors

(b) hardware fatique

(c) defects in floppy disks

(d) data entry errors (Ans)

51 . Which is a secondary memory device ?

(a) CPU

(b) ALU

(c) Floppy disk (Ans)

(d) Mouse

(e) None of the above

52 . Which is the most significant difference between a simple desk calculator and computer? Choose from the following (note that some of the following may not even be true).

(a) the computer is an electronic machine while the desk calculator may or may not be electronic

(b) the computer is useful in business applications while the desk calculator is not

(c) the computer can print its results, while the desk calculator can only show it on a display

(d) the computer is controlled by a program stored in its memory while calculator require step-by-step manual control (Ans)

(e) One has to know the method of calculation while using a calculator but a computer user can depend upon the computer to choose the method automatically.

53. A term associated with the comparison of processing speeds of different computer systems is :

(a) EFTS

(b) MPG

(c) MIPS (Ans)

(d) CPS

54 . RAM is used as a short memory beacuse it

(a) is volatile (Ans)

(b) is very expensive

(c) has small capacity

(d) is programmable

(e) None of the above

55 . General purpose computes are those that can be adopted to countless uses simply by changing its.

(a) keyboard

(b) printer

(c) program (Ans)

(d) display screen

(e) None of the above

56 . Which is the computer memory that does not forget?

(a) ROM (Ans)

(b) RAM

(c) PROM

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

57 . The Senta Clara Valley near Palo Alto, California is popularly known as Silicon Valley of America because

(a) huge deposits of silicon are found there

(b) many silicon chip manufacturing firms are located there (Ans)

(c) Santa Claus visits it every Christmas

(d) it is full of large grain sand

58 . Computers are incapable of emotional feelings. However, some people attribute humanlike emotions to imitate objects including computers. What is it called?

(a) anthropogenesis

(b) anthropomorphism (Ans)

(c) anthroolatory

(d) cybernetics

59 . According to you, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) generally, computers don't make mistakes

(b) computers eliminate jobs

(c) computers can think (Ans)

(d) maths is necessary to understand computers

60. The most common binary code in use today is the 8 bit ASCII code. What do the letters ASCII stand for?

(a) American Standard Code for International Interchange

(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange (Ans)

(c) American Standard Code for Intelligence interchange

(d) American Scientific Code for Information Interchange

(e) None of the above

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