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Software Companies Placement Papers-Accenture-Free Download

Software Companies Placement Papers With Answers-Accenture-Free Download

Accenture Solved Placement Paper

No. of Questions = 55 ;time limit = 60 minutes
along with that an essay to write in the same sheet in another 10 minutes. No sectional cut off, no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test

Aptitude Test :

Directions for Questions 1-3: Choose the option which will correctly fill the blank.

1. This train travels from London ______ Paris.
A. at
B. to
C. over
D. below
Ans: B

2. We stood at the back ______ the theater.
A. of
B. on
C. in
D. for
Ans: of

3. I will work _________ five o'clock.
A. until
B. up
C. in
D. to

Directions for Questions 4-6: Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in ITALICS from the given options.

4. The antidote to these problems is hard to find
A. Cause for
B. Result of
C. Remedy for
D. Consequence of
E. None of these
Ans: C

5. Because of a family feud, he never spoke to his aife's parents.
A. Crisis
B. Trouble
C. Problem
D. Quarrel
E. None of these
Ans: D

6. The article is written in a very lucid style.
A. Elaborate
B. Clear
C. Intricate
D. Noble
E. None of these
Ans: B

Directions for Questions 7-10: Choose the answer option which will correctly fill the blank.

7. _________ man ran into the street. A car hit ____ man.
A. A, the
B. An, the
C. the, the
D. A, the

8. The interesting thing about _____ Romans is all the roads that they built in Britain.
A. A
B. An
C. none of these
D. The

9. Albert Einstein was _____ famous scientist. Einstein won _______ Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921.Einstein left his country and lived in _______ States until he died in 1955.
A) A, the, an
B) A, the, the
C) A, an, the
D) An, an, the
Ans: B

10. Are you shopping for ________ health club to join so you can get in shape? Shop wisely! You could end up choosing _______ wrong club and losing more money than pounds.
A) the, an
B) the, the
C) A, the
D) An, the
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 11-16:Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into education would remove the conventionality, artificiality, and backward-lookingness which were characteristic;of classical studies, but they were gravely disappointed. So, too, in their time had the humanists thought that the study of the classical authors in the original would banish at once the dull pedantry and superstition of mediaeval scholasticism. The professional schoolmaster was a match for both of them, and has almost managed to make the understanding of chemical reactions as dull and as dogmatic an affair as the reading of Virgil's Aeneid. The chief claim for the use of science in education is that it teaches a child something about the actual universe in which he is living, in making him acquainted with the results of scientific discovery, and at the same time teaches him how to think logically and inductively by studying scientific method. A certain limited success has been reached in the first of these aims, but practically none at all in the second. Those privileged members of the community who have been through a secondary or public school education may be expected to know something about the elementary physics and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but they probably know hardly more than any bright boy can pick up from an interest in wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours. As to the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience of teachers and the requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the pupils not only do not learn scientific method but learn precisely the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told and to reproduce it when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or not. The way in which educated people respond to such quackeries as spiritualism or astrology, not to say more dangerous ones such as racial theories or currency myths,shows that fifty years of education in the method of science in Britain or Germany has produced no visible effect whatever. The only way of learning the method of science is the long and bitter way of personal experience, and, until the educational or social systems are altered to make this possible, the best we can expect is the production of a minority of people who are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still smaller minority who are able to use and develop them.

11. The author implies that the 'professional schoolmaster' has
A. no interest in teaching science
B. thwarted attempts to enliven education
C. aided true learning
D. supported the humanists
E. been a pioneer in both science and humanities.
Ans: B

12. The author's attitude to secondary and public school education in the sciences is
A. ambivalent
B. neutra
C. supportive
D. satirical
E. contemptuous
Ans: E

13. The word 'palpably' most nearly means
A. empirically
B. obviously
C. tentatively
D. markedly
E. ridiculously
Ans: B

14. The author blames all of the following for the failure to impart scientific method through the education system except
A. poor teaching
B. examination methods
C. lack of direct experience
D. the social and education systems
E. lack of interest on the part of students
Ans: E

15. If the author were to study current education in science to see how things have changed since he wrote the piece, he would probably be most interested in the answer to which of the following questions?
A. Do students know more about the world about them?
B. Do students spend more time in laboratories?
C. Can students apply their knowledge logically?
D. Have textbooks improved?
E. Do they respect their teachers
Ans: C

16. Astrology (line 31) is mentioned as an example of
A. a science that needs to be better understood
B. a belief which no educated people hold
C. something unsupportable to those who have absorbed the methods of science
D. the gravest danger to society
E. an acknowledged failure of science
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 17-20: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

Furthermore, insofar as any conclusion about its author can be drawn from five or six plays attributed to him, the Wakefield Master is without exception considered to be a man of sharp contemporary observation. He was, probably clerically educated, as indicated by his Latin and music, his Biblical and patristic lore. Even today he is remembered for his his quick sympathy for the oppressed and forgotten man, his sharp eye for character, a ready ear for colloquial, vernacular turns of speech and a humor alternately rude and boisterous, coarse and happy. Therefore in spite of his conscious artistry as can be seen in his feeling for intricate metrical and stanza forms, he is regarded as a kind of medieval Steinbeck, indignantly angry at, uncompromisingly and even brutally realistic in presenting the plight of the agricultural poor.It is now fairly accepted to regard the play as a kind of ultimate point in the secularization of the medieval drama. Therefore more stress has been laid on it as depicting realistically humble manners and pastoral life in the bleak of the west riding of Yorkshire on a typically cold night of December 24th. After what are often regarded as almost "documentaries" given in the three successive monologues of the three shepherds, critics go on to affirm that the realism is then intensified into a burlesque mock-treatment of the Nativity. Finally as a sort of epilogue or after-thought in deference to the Biblical origins of the materials, the play slides back into an atavistic mood of early innocent reverence. In actuality, the final scene is the culminating scene and also the raison d'etre of the introductory "realism."Superficially the present play supports the conventional view of its mood of secular realism. At the same time, the "realism" of the Wakefield Master is of a paradoxical turn. His wide knowledge of people, as well as books indicates no cloistered contemplative but one in close relation to his times. Still, that life was after all a predominantly religious one, a time which never neglected the belief that man was a rebellious and sinful creature in need of redemption . So deeply (one can hardly say "naively" of so sophisticated a writer) and implicitly religious is the Master that he is less able (or less willing) to present actual history realistically than is the author of the Brome Abraham and Isaac. His historical sense is even less realistic than that of Chaucer who just a few years before had done for his own time "costume romances," such as The Knight's Tele, Troilus and Cressida, etc. Furthermore, used highly romantic materials, which could excuse his taking liberties with history.

17. Of the following statements, which is not true of Wakefield Master?
A. He and Chaucer were contemporaries.
B. Wakefield Master is remembered as having written five or six realistic plays.
C. His plays realistically portray the plight of the country folk of his day
D. His writing was similar to that of John Steinbeck.
E. He was an accomplished artist.
Ans: D

18. The word 'patristic' in the first paragraph is used to mean:
A. patriotic
B. superstitious
C. folk
D. relating to the Christian Fathers
E. realistic
Ans: D

19. The statement about the "secularization of the medieval drama" (opening sentence of the second paragraph) refers to the
A. Introduction of religious themes in the early days
B. Presentation of erudite material
C. Use of contemporary materials
D. Return to early innocent reverence at the end of the play
E. Introduction of mundane matters in religious plays
Ans: E

20. From the following what would the writer be expected to do in the subsequent paragraphs:
A. Make a justification for his comparison with Steinbeck
B. Put forth a view point, which would take up the thought of the second paragraph
C. Point out the anachronisms in the play
D. Discuss the works of Chaucer
E. Talk about the lack of realism in the works of the Wakefield Master.
Ans: B

Section 2 -Analytical Ability

No. of Questions: 20
Duration in Minutes: 20

21.If f(x) = (x -50), what is the value of f(-5) ?
A. 75
B. 25
C. 0
D. -25
E. -75
Ans: B

22. Helpers are needed to prepare for the fete. Each helper can make either 2 large cakes or 35 small cakes per hour. The kitchen is available for 3 hours and 20 large cakes and 700 small cakes are needed. How many helpers are required?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30
Ans: A

23. If f(x) = (x + 2) / (x-2) for all integers except x=2, which of the following has the greatest value?
A. f(-1)
B. f(0)
C. f(1)
D. f(3)
E. f(4)
Ans: D

24. A perfect cube is an integer whose cube root is an integer. For example, 27, 64 and 125 are perfect cubes. If p and q are perfect cubes, which of the following will not necessarily be a perf
ect cube?
A. 8p
B. pq
C. pq + 27
D. -p
E. (p -q)6
Ans: C

25. A piece of ribbon 4 yards long is used to make bows requiring 15 inches of ribbon for each. What is the maximum number of bows that can be made?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
E. 12
Ans: B

26. If V = 12R / (r + R) , then R =
A. Vr / (12 -V)
B. Vr + V /12
C. Vr -12
D. V / r -12
E. V (r + 1) /12
Ans: A

27. The number of degrees that the hour hand of a clock moves through between noon and 2.30 in the afternoon of the same day is
A. 720
B. 180
C. 75
D. 65
E. 60
Ans: C

28. (3x + 2) (2x -5) = ax + kx + n .What is the value of a -n + k ?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
E. 11
Ans: A

29. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20% then the area is increased by :
A. 44%
B. 120%
C. 144%
D. 40%
E. None of the above
Ans: A

30. If the area of two circles are in the ratio 169 : 196 then the ratio of their radii is
A. 10 : 11
B. 11 : 12
C. 12 : 13
D. 13 : 14
E. None of the above
Ans: D

Directions for Questions 31-34: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II . consider the statement and decide which of the given assumption is implicit.
Give answer (A) if only I is implicit ;
(B) if only assumption II is implicit;
(C) If either I or II is implicit ;
(D) if neither I nor II is implicit
(E) if both I and II are implicit.

31. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
I At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
Ans: A

32. Statement: The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals
Assumptions:
I The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up near future
II The domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision
Ans: D

33. Statement:" AS there is a great demand, every person take tickets of the programme will be given only five tickets".
Assumptions:
I The organizers are not keen on selling the tickets.
II No one is interested in getting more than five tickets
Ans: D

34. Statement: The railway authorities are decided to increase the freight charges by 10% in view of the possibility of incurring losses in the current financial year.
Assumptions:
I The volume of freight during the remaining period may remain same.
II The amount so obtained may set off a part or total of the estimated deficit
Ans: B

35.There are 4 boys and 3 girls. What is the probability the boys and girls sit alternately?
Ans: 1/35

36. Two trains are 2 kms apart. Speed of one train is 20m/s and the other train is running at 30 m/s .Lengths of the trains are 200 and 300m. In how much time do the trains cross each other?
Ans: 50 seconds

37. A train runs first half of the distance at 40 km/hr and the remaining half at 60 km/hr. What is the average speed for the entire journey?
Ans: 48km/hr

38.A box contains 90 mts each of 100 gms and 100 bolts each of 150 gms. If the entire box weighs 35.5kg., then the weight of the empty box is :
A. 10 kg
B. 10.5 kg
C. 11 kg
D. 11.5 kg
E. None of the above
Ans: D

39. A father is three times as old as his son. After fifteen years the father will be twice as old as his son's age at that time. Hence the father's present age is
A. 36
B. 42
C. 45
D. 48
E. None of the above
Ans: C

40. Which of the following is the greatest ?
A. 40% of 30
B. 3/5 of 25
C. 6.5% of 200
D. Five more than the square of 3
E. 1/2-4
Ans: E

Directions for Questions 41-45: Follow the directions given below to answer the questions that follow. Your answer for each question below would be: A, if ALL THREE items given in the question are exactly ALIKE. B, if only the FIRST and SECOND items are exactly ALIKE. C, if only the FIRST and THIRD items are exactly ALIKE. D, if only the SECOND and THIRD items are exactly ALIKE. E, if ALL THREE items are DIFFERENT.

41) 0427-4567324, 0427-4567154, 0427-4567324
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Ans: C

42)HHMKKKJKNOII, HHMKKKJKNOII, HHMKKKJKNOII
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Ans: A

43) YXXYXXYXYY, YXXYYXYXYY, YXXYXXYXXY
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Ans: E

44) 7661637.8787, 7666137.8787, 7666137.8787
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Ans: D

45)101100110.0101, 101100110.0101, 101100100.0101
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Ans: B

Directions for Questions 46-50: What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following number series?

46. 992 1056 ? 1190 1260 1332
A. 1112
B. 1082
C. 1134
D. 1092
E. None of these
Ans: E

47. 15625 6250 2500 1000 ? 160
A. 600
B. 400
C. 500
D. 650
E. None of these
Ans: B

48. 80 370 ? 1550 2440 3530
A. 900
B. 840
C. 750
D. 860
E. None of these
Ans: D

49. 15 51 216 1100 ? 46452
A. 6630
B. 6650
C. 6560
D. 6530
E. None of these
Ans: A

50. 24 28 36 52 84 ?
A. 144
B. 135
C. 148
D. 140
E. None of these
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 51-55: Read the following instructions carefully and answer the questions given below it:
From a group of six boys M,N,O,P,Q,R and five girls G,H,I,J,K a team of six is to be selected .Some of the criteria of selection are as follows:
M and J go together
O cannot be placed with N
I cannot go with J
N goes with H
P and Q have to be together
K and R go together
Unless otherwise stated, these criteria are applicable to all the following questions:

51. If the team consists of 2 girls and I is one of them, the other members are
A. GMRPQ
B. HNOPQ
C. KOPQR
D. KRMNP
Ans: C

52. If the team has four boys including O and R, the members of the team other than O and R are
A. HIPQ
B. GKPQ
C. GJPQ
D. GJMP
Ans: B

53. If four members are boys, which of the following cannot constitute the team?
A. GJMOPQ
B. HJMNPQ
C. JKMNOR
D. JKMPQR
Ans: C

54. If both K and P are members of the team and three boys in all are included in the team, the members of the team other than K and P are
A. GIRQ
B. GJRM
C. HIRQ
D. IJRQ
Ans: A

55. if the team has three girls including J and K, the members of the team other than J and K are
A. GHNR
B. MNOG
C. MORG
D. NHOR
Ans: C

Aptitude Test

1. The largest 4 digit number exactly divisible by 88 is:
A. 9944
B. 9768
C. 9988
D. 8888

2. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
A. 81 min.
B. 108 min.
C. 144 min.
D. 192 min.

3. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?
A. 15 min
B. 20 min
C. 27.5 min
D. 30 min

4. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14. The larger of the two numbers is:
A. 276
B. 299
C. 322
D. 345

5. Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8

6. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is:
A. 100 kmph
B. 110 kmph
C. 120 kmph
D. 130 kmph

7. Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be:
A. Rs. 169.50
B. Rs. 170
C. Rs. 175.50
D. Rs. 180

8. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

9. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be formed?
A. 210
B. 1050
C. 25200
D. 21400

10. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight of B is:
A. 17 kg
B. 20 kg
C. 26 kg
D. 31 kg

11. A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth". If the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
A. 14 years
B. 19 years
C. 33 years
D. 38 years

12. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
A. 120 metres
B. 180 metres
C. 324 metres
D. 150 metres

13. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
A. Rs. 375
B. Rs. 400
C. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 800

14. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A's share is Rs. 855, the total profit is:
A. Rs. 1425
B. Rs. 1500
C. Rs. 1537.50
D. Rs. 1576

15. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25

16. FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____
A. JAK
B. HAL
C. HAK
D. JAI

17. SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL
A. CMN
B. UJI
C. VIJ
D. IJT

18. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is:
A. 50 km
B. 56 km
C. 70 km
D. 80 km

19. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of ground is:
A. 75 cu. m
B. 750 cu. m
C. 7500 cu. m
D. 75000 cu. m

20. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
A. Rs. 650
B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 698
D. Rs. 700

Technical Interview Questions

Which is the parameter that is added to every non-static member function when it is called? What is a binary semaphore? What is its use? What is thrashing? What are turnaround time and response time? What is data structure? List out the areas in which data structures are applied extensively? What is a DBMS, query, SQL? What is the difference between primary and foreign key? What is XML? Explain that why C is procedural? What are the different phases of a compiler? What is TDM? What is normalization? Explain its different types? Explain what do you mean by functional overloading? Define Routing Algorithm?

ptitude test:

Questions = 55; Time limit = 60 minutes along with that an essay to write in the same sheet in another 10 minutes. No sectional cut off, no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test Directions for Questions 1-3: Choose the option which will correctly fill the blank. 1. This train travels from London ______ Paris. a) at b) to c) over d) below Ans: b 2. We stood at the back ______ the theater. a) of b)on c)in d) for Ans: a 3. I will work _________ five o'clock. a) until b) up c)in d) to Directions for Questions 4-6: Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in ITALICS from the given options. 4. The antidote to these problems is hard to find a) Cause for b) Result of c) Remedy for d) Consequence of e) None of these Ans:C 5. Because of a family feud , he never spoke to his aife's parents. a) Crisis b) Trouble c) Problem d) Quarrel d) None of these Ans: D 6. The article is written in a very lucid style. a) Elaborate b) Clear c) Intricate d) Noble e) None of these Ans:B Directions for Questions 7-10: Choose the answer option which will correctly fill the blank. 7. _________ man ran into the street. A car hit ____ man. a) A, the b) An, the c) the, the d) A, the 8. The interesting thing about _____ Romans is all the roads that they built in Britain. a) A b) An c) none of these d) The 9. Albert Einstein was _____ famous scientist. Einstein won _______ Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921.Einstein left his country and lived in ___________States until he died in 1955. a) A, the, an b) A, the, the c) A, an, the d) An, an, the
Ans: B 10. Are you shopping for ________ health club to join so you can get in shape? Shop wisely! You could end up choosing ___________wrong club and losing more money than pounds.
a) the, an b) the, the c) A, the d) An, the
Ans: C Directions for Questions 11-16: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage. The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into education would remove the conventionality, artificiality, and backward-lookingness which were characteristic;of classical studies, but they were gravely disappointed. So, too, in their time had the humanists thought that the study of the classical authors in the original would banish at once the dull pedantry and superstition of mediaeval scholasticism. The professional schoolmaster was a match for both of them, and has almost managed to make the understanding of chemical reactions as dull and as dogmatic an affair as the reading of Virgil's Aeneid. The chief claim for the use of science in education is that it teaches a child something about the actual universe in which he is living, in making him acquainted with the results of scientific discovery, and at the same time teaches him how to think logically and inductively by studying scientific method. A certain limited success has been reached in the first of these aims, but practically none at all in the second. Those privileged members of the community who have been through a secondary or public school education may be expected to know something about the elementary physics and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but they probably know hardly more than any bright boy can pick up from an interest in wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours. As to the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience of teachers and the requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the pupils not only do not learn scientific method but learn precisely the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told and to reproduce it when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or not. The way in which educated people respond to such quackeries as spiritualism or astrology, not to say more dangerous ones such as racial theories or currency myths, shows that fifty years of education in the method of science in Britain or Germany has produced no visible effect whatever. The only way of learning the method of science is the long and bitter way of personal experience, and, until the educational or social systems are altered to make this possible, the best we can expect is the production of a minority of people who are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still smaller minority who are able to use and develop them.


11. The author implies that the 'professional schoolmaster' has a) No interest in teaching science b) Thwarted attempts to enliven education c) Aided true learning d) Supported the humanists e) Been a pioneer in both science and humanities. Ans: B 12. The authors attitude to secondary and public school education in the sciences is a) Ambivalent b) Neutra c) Supportive d) Satirical e) Contemptuous Ans: e 13. The word palpably most nearly means a) Empirically b) Obviously c) Tentatively d) Markedly e) Ridiculously Ans: b 14. The author blames all of the following for the failure to impart scientific method through the education system except a) Poor teaching b) Examination methods c) Lack of direct experience d) The social and education systems e) Lack of interest on the part of students Ans: e 15. If the author were to study current education in science to see how things have changed since he wrote the piece, he would probably be most interested in the answer to which of the following questions? a) Do students know more about the world about them? b) Do students spend more time in laboratories? c) Can students apply their knowledge logically? d) Have textbooks improved? e) Do they respect their teachers Ans: c 16. Astrology (line 31) is mentioned as an example of a) A science that needs to be better understood
b) A belief which no educated people hold
c) Something unsupportable to those who have absorbed the methods of science
d) The gravest danger to society
e) An acknowledged failure of science Ans: c Directions for Questions 17-20: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage. Furthermore, insofar as any conclusion about its author can be drawn from five or six plays attributed to him, the Wakefield Master is without exception considered to be a man of sharp contemporary observation. He was, probably clerically educated, as indicated by his Latin and music, his Biblical and patristic lore. Even today he is remembered for his his quick sympathy for the oppressed and forgotten man, his sharp eye for character, a ready ear for colloquial, vernacular turns of speech and a humor alternately rude and boisterous, coarse and happy. Therefore in spite of his conscious artistry as can be seen in his feeling for intricate metrical and stanza forms, he is regarded as a kind of medieval Steinbeck, indignantly angry at, uncompromisingly and even brutally realistic in presenting the plight of the agricultural poor. It is now fairly accepted to regard the play as a kind of ultimate point in the secularization of the medieval drama. Therefore more stress has been laid on it as depicting realistically humble manners and pastoral life in the bleak of the west riding of Yorkshire on a typically cold night of December 24th. After what are often regarded as almost ''documentaries'' given in the three successive monologues of the three shepherds, critics go on to affirm that the realism is then intensified into a burlesque mock-treatment of the Nativity. Finally as a sort of epilogue or after-thought in deference to the Biblical origins of the materials, the play slides back into an atavistic mood of early innocent reverence. In actuality, the final scene is the culminating scene and also the raison detre of the introductory ''realism.'' Superficially the present play supports the conventional view of its mood of secular realism. At the same time, the ''realism'' of the Wakefield Master is of a paradoxical turn. His wide knowledge of people, as well as books indicates no cloistered contemplative but one in close relation to his times. Still, that life was after all a predominantly religious one, a time which never neglected the belief that man was a rebellious and sinful creature in need of redemption . So deeply (one can hardly say ''naively'' of so sophisticated a writer) and implicitly religious is the Master that he is less able (or less willing) to present actual history realistically than is the author of the Brome Abraham and Isaac. His historical sense is even less realistic than that of Chaucer who just a few years before had done for his own time ''costume romances,'' such as The Knight's Tele, Troilus and Cressida, etc. Furthermore, used highly romantic materials, which could excuse his taking liberties with history.

17. Of the following statements, which is not true of Wakefield Master?

a) He and Chaucer were contemporaries. b) Wakefield Master is remembered as having written five or six realistic plays. c) His plays realistically portray the plight of the country folk of his day d) His writing was similar to that of John Steinbeck. e) He was an accomplished artist. Ans: d

18. The word 'patristic' in the first paragraph is used to mean.

a) Patriotic b) Superstitious c) Folk d) Relating to the Christian Fathers e) Realistic Ans: d

19. The statement about the ''secularization of the medieval drama'' (opening sentence of the second paragraph) refers to the

a) Introduction of religious themes in the early days b) Presentation of erudite material c) Use of contemporary materials d) Return to early innocent reverence at the end of the play e) Introduction of mundane matters in religious plays Ans: e

20. From the following what would the writer be expected to do in the subsequent paragraphs.

a) Make a justification for his comparison with Steinbeck b) Put forth a view point, which would take up the thought of the second paragraph c) Point out the anachronisms in the play d) Discuss the works of Chaucer e) Talk about the lack of realism in the works of the Wakefield Master. Ans: b Section 2: Analytical Ability
No. of Questions: 20
Duration in Minutes: 20 21. If f(x) = ?(x 50)?, what is the value of f(-5)?
a) 75 b) 25 c) 0 d) -25 e) -75 Ans: b 22. Helpers are needed to prepare for the fete. Each helper can make either 2 large cakes or 35 small cakes per hour. The kitchen is available for 3 hours and 20 large cakes and 700 small cakes are needed. How many helpers are required?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30 Ans: a 23. If f(x) = (x + 2) / (x-2) for all integers except x=2, which of the following has the greatest value?
a) f(-1) b) f(0) c) f(1) d) f(3) e) f(4)
Ans: d 24. A perfect cube is an integer whose cube root is an integer. For example, 27, 64 and 125 are perfect cubes. If p and q are perfect cubes, which of the following will not necessarily be a perfect cube?
a) 8p b) pq c) pq + 27 d) -p e) (p - q)6 Ans: c 25. A piece of ribbon 4 yards long is used to make bows requiring 15 inches of ribbon for each. What is the maximum number of bows that can be made?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
E. 12 Ans: b 26. If V = 12R / (r + R) , then R =
A. Vr / (12 - V)
B. Vr + V /12
C. Vr - 12
D. V / r - 12
E. V (r + 1) /12
Ans: a 27. The number of degrees that the hour hand of a clock moves through between noon and 2.30 in the afternoon of the same day is a) 720 b) 180 c) 75 d) 65 e) 60 Ans: c 28. (3x + 2) (2x - 5) = ax + kx + n. What is the value of a - n + k? a) 5 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10 e) 11 Ans: a 29. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20% then the area is increased by: a) 44% b) 120% c) 144% d) 40% e) None of the above Ans: a 30. If the area of two circles are in the ratio 169 : 196 then the ratio of their radii is a) 10 : 11 b) 11 : 12 c) 12 : 13 d) 13 : 14 e) None of the above Ans: d Directions for Questions 31-34: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II . consider the statement and decide which of the given assumption is implicit.
Give answer (A) if only I is implicit ; (B) if only assumption II is implicit; (C) If either I or II is implicit ; (D) if neither I nor II is implicit (E) if both I and II are implicit. 31. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so. Assumptions: I At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
Ans: a 32. Statement: The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals
Assumptions: I The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up near future
II The domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision
Ans: d 33. Statement:" AS there is a great demand , every person take tickets of the programme will be given only five tickets".
Assumptions: I The organizers are not keen on selling the tickets.
II No one is interested in getting more than five tickets
Ans: d 34. Statement: The railway authorities are decided to increase the freight charges by 10% in view of the possibility of incurring losses in the current financial year.
Assumptions: I The volume of freight during the remaining period may remain same.
II The amount so obtained may set off a part or total of the estimated deficit
Ans: b 35.There are 4 boys and 3 girls. What is the probability the boys and girls sit alternately?
Ans:1/35 36. Two trains are 2 kms apart. Speed of one train is 20m/s and the other train is running at 30 m/s. Lengths of the trains are 200 and 300m. In how much time do the trains cross each other?
Ans: 50 seconds 37. A train runs first half of the distance at 40 km/hr and the remaining half at 60 km/hr. What is the
average speed for the entire journey? Ans: 48km/hr 38. A box contains 90 mts each of 100 gms and 100 bolts each of 150 gms. If the entire box weighs 35.5 kg., then the weight of the empty box is. a) 10 kg b) 10.5 kg c) 11 kg d) 11.5 kg e) None of the above Ans: d 39. A father is three times as old as his son. After fifteen years the father will be twice as old as his son's age at that time. Hence the father's present age is a) 36 b) 42 c) 45 d) 48 e) None of the above Ans: c 40. Which of the following is the greatest? a) 40% of 30 b) 3/5 of 25 c) 6.5% of 200 d) Five more than the square of 3 e) 1/2-4 Ans: e Directions for Questions 41-45: Follow the directions given below to answer the questions that follow. Your answer for each question below would be: A, if ALL THREE items given in the question are exactly ALIKE. B, if only the FIRST and SECOND items are exactly ALIKE. C, if only the FIRST and THIRD items are exactly ALIKE. D, if only the SECOND and THIRD items are exactly ALIKE. E, if ALL THREE items are DIFFERENT. 41) 0427-4567324, 0427-4567154, 0427-4567324 a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Ans: c 42)HHMKKKJKNOII, HHMKKKJKNOII, HHMKKKJKNOII a) A b)B c)C d)D e)E Ans: a 43) YXXYXXYXYY, YXXYYXYXYY, YXXYXXYXXY a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Ans: e 44) 7661637.8787, 7666137.8787, 7666137.8787 a) A b) B c)C d)De)E Ans:D 45)101100110.0101, 101100110.0101, 101100100.0101 a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Ans: B Directions for Questions 46-50: What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following number series?
46. 992 1056 ? 1190 1260 1332 a) 1112 b) 1082 c) 1134 d) 1092 e) None of these Ans: e 47. 15625 6250 2500 1000? 160 a) 600 b) 400 c) 500 d) 650 e) None of these Ans: b

48. 80 370? 1550 2440 3530 a) 900 b) 840 c) 750 d) 860 a) None of these Ans: D 49. 15 51 216 1100? 46452 a) 6630 b) 6650 c) 6560 d) 6530 e) None of these Ans: a 50. 24 28 36 52 84? a) 144 b) 135 c) 148 d) 140 e) None of these Ans: c Directions for Questions 51-55: Read the following instructions carefully and answer the questions given below it: From a group of six boys M,N,O,P,Q,R and five girls G,H,I,J,K a team of six is to be selected .Some of the criteria of selection are as follows:
M and J go together
O cannot be placed with N
I cannot go with J
N goes with H
P and Q have to be together
K and R go together
Unless otherwise stated, these criteria are applicable to all the following questions: 51. If the team consists of 2 girls and I is one of them , the other members are a) GMRPQ b) HNOPQ c) KOPQR d) KRMNP Ans: c 52. If the team has four boys including O and R , the members of the team other than O and R are a)HIPQ b)GKPQ c) GJPQ d) GJMP Ans: b 53. If four members are boys, which of the following cannot constitute the team? a) GJMOPQ b) HJMNPQ c) JKMNOR d)JKMPQR Ans: c 54. If both K and P are members of the team and three boys in all are included in the team, the members of the team other than K and P are a) GIRQ b) GJRM c) HIRQ d) IJRQ Ans: a 55. if the team has three girls including J and K , the members of the team other than J and K are a) GHNR b) MNOGMORG c) NHOR Ans: c

Verbal reasoning (20 questions)

1. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, "If you give me three cards, you will have as many as E has and if I give you three cards, you will have as many as D has." A and B together had 10 cards more than what D and E together have. If B has two cards more than what C has and the total number of cards be 133, how many cards does B have?

Ans-25

2. At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used a bowl of dal between them and every four used a bowl of meat between them. There were altogether 65 dishes. How many guests were present at the party?

Ans-60

3. Village K is to the North of the village R. The village S is in the East of Village K. The village J is to the left of the village R. In which direction is the village J with respect to village S?

Ans-South-West

4. 'Nun' is related to 'Convent' in the same way as 'Hen' is related to:

A. Nest

B. Shed

C. Cell

D. Cote

Ans-D

5.'Reading' is related to 'knowledge' in the same way as 'Work' is related to:

A. Money

B. Employment

C. Experience

D. Engagement

Ans-C

6. How many points will be on the face opposite to in face which contains 2 points?

Ans-6

7. In the questiongiven below two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens.

Conclusions:

Some pens are pencils.

Some pens are papers.

A. Only (1) conclusion follows

B. Only (2) conclusion follows

C. Either (1) or (2) follows

D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows

E. Both (1) and (2) follow

Ans-E

8. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 45

B. 41

C. 32

D. 40

Ans-A

Answer the questions(9-12) from the information given below

All the opposite faces of a big cube are coloured with red, black and green colours. After that is cut into 64 small equal cubes.

9. How many small cubes are there whose no faces are coloured ?

Ans-8

10. How many small cubes are there whose only one face is coloured ?

Ans-24

11. How many small cubes are there whose 3 faces are coloured ?

Ans-8

12. How many small cubes are there whose at the most two faces are coloured ?

Ans-56

13. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statements:

The meteorological Department has issued a statement mentioning deficient rainfall during monsoon in many parts of the country.

The Government has lowered the revised estimated GDP growth from the level of earlier estimates.

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.

D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Ans-D

14. f M x N means M is the daughter of N; M + N means M is the father of N; M % N means M is the mother of N and M - N means M is the brother of N then P % Q + R - T x K indicates which relation of P to K?

A. Daughter-in-law \

B. Sister-in-law

C. Aunt

D. None of these

Ans-D

15. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?

A. M - N x C + F

B. F - C + N x M

C. N + M - F x C

D. M x N - C + F

16. Pointing to a person, Deepak said, "His only brother is the father of my daughter's father". How is the person related to Deepak?

A. Father

B. Grandfather

C. Uncle

D. Brother-in-law

Ans-C

17. If A $ B means A is the brother of B; A @ B means A is the wife of B; A # B means A is the daughter of B and A * B means A is the father of B, which of the following indicates that U is the father-in-law of P?

A. P @ Q $ T # U * W

B. P @ W $ Q * T # U

C. P @ Q $ W * T # U

D. P @ Q $ T # W * U

Ans-A

18. What is found necessarily in milk?

A. Cream

B. Curd

C. Water

D. Whiteness

Ans-D

19. A train always has

A. Rails

B. Driver

C. Guard

D. Engine

Ans-D

20. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1. Family 2. Community 3. Member 4. Locality 5. Country

A. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

B. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

C. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

Ans-A

Analytical Reasoning (20 questions)

1. Count the number of squares in the given figure.

Ans-30

2. Find the number of quadrilaterals in the given figure.

Ans-11

3. Count the number of triangles and squares in the given figure.

Ans-40 triangles, 7 squares

4. What is the minimum number of straight lines that is needed to construct the figure?

Ans-13

5. Determine the number of rectangles and hexagons in the given figure.

Ans-30,5

6. A man said to woman " your only brother's son is my wife's brother". How is the woman related to the man's wife...

(ans:AUNT)

.

7. Zulus always speak truth and Hutus always speak lies. There are three persons A,B&C. A met B and says I am a Zulu or I am Hutu". We don't know what exactly he said. then B meets C and says to c that " A is a Zulu ". Then C replied No, A is a Hutu ".

How many Zulus are there? Who must be a Zulu?

8. In a total of 36 vehicles after one car there is one scooter. After 2nd car there will be two scooters and after 3rd car there will be 3 scooters so on. Then find the number of scooters in the right half of arrangement.

ans. 13

9. A is the widow of B. B & C were the only children of E. C is unmarried and is a doctor. D is the grand daughter of E and studies science. How is A related to D.

a)Aunt b) daughter c) sister d) sister_in_law

Ans: b

10. Boys are allowed to watch football at c.v.Raman auditorium subjected to conditions.

i) The boy over age 16 can wear overcoat

ii) No boy over age 15 can wear cap

iii) To watch the football either he has to wear overcoat or cap or both

iv) A boy with an umbrella or above 16 or both cannot wear sweater.

v) Boys must either not watch football or wear sweater.

What is the appearance of the boy who is watching football?

11. There are 3 nurses and they work altogether only once in a week. no nurse is called to work for 3 consecutive days. Nurse 1 is off on tueseday, thursday and sunday. nurse 2 is off on saturday. Nurse 3 is off on thursday, sunday. no two nurses are off more than once a week. Find the day on which all the 3 nurses were on work.

12. There are 5 persons a,b,c,d,e and each is wearing a block or white cap on his head. a person can see the caps of the remaining 4 but can't see his own cap. a person wearing white says true and who wears block says false.

i) a says i see 3 whites and 1 block

i) b says i see 4 blocks

iii) e says i see 4 whites

iv) c says i see 3 blocks and 1 white.

now find the caps weared by a,b,c,d and e

13. Which of the following options are true

Alphine tunnels are closed tunnels. in the past 30 yrs not even a single accident has been recorded for there is one accident in the rail road system. even in case of a fire accident it is possible to shift the passengers into adjacent wagons and even the living fire can be detected and extinguished with in the duration of 30 min.

A. no accident can occur in the closed tunnels

B. fire is allowed to live for 30 min.

C. All the care that travel in the tunnels will be carried by rail shutters.

Ans-A,C

14. All Hopes are Dupes All fears are liars so

i) All hopes are fears

ii) All dupes are liars

15. 6 persons A,B,C,D,E,F are playing a game of cards . A's father and mother ,uncle were in the gang. There were two women. B is the mother of A gets more points then her husband. D got more points then E but less then F. Niece of E got the lowest points. Father of A agot More points then F. But would not win the game.

i) Who won the game?

a) A b) B c) F d) D

ans: b

ii) who got lowest points ?

a) A b) C c) E d) B

ans: a

iii) who is the husband of B ?

a) F b) E c) D d) c

ans : c

iV) B was one of the lady. who was other lady?

a) C b) D c) E d) A

ans: a

v) who stood second in the game?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

ans: c

16. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

Ans-24

17. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.

Ans-11

18. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.

Ans-14

19. What is the number of straight lines and the number of triangles in the given figure.

Ans- 9 straight lines and 36 triangles

20. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

Ans-15

Quantitative aptitude(15 questions)

1. A train overtakes two persons walking along a railway track. The first one walks at 4.5 km/hr. The other one walks at 5.4 km/hr. The train needs 8.4 and 8.5 seconds respectively to overtake them. What is the speed of the train if both the persons are walking in the same direction as the train?

A. 66 km/hr

B. 72 km/hr

C. 78 km/hr

D. 81 km/hr

Ans-D

2. Two stations A and B are 110 km apart on a straight line. One train starts from A at 7 a.m. and travels towards B at 20 kmph. Another train starts from B at 8 a.m. and travels towards A at a speed of 25 kmph. At what time will they meet?

A. 9 a.m.

B. 10 a.m.

C. 10.30 a.m.

D. 11 a.m.

Ans-B

3. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?

A. Rs. 4991

B. Rs. 5991

C. Rs. 6001

D. Rs. 6991

Ans-A

4. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?

A. 76 kg

B. 76.5 kg

C. 85 kg

D. Data inadequate

Ans-C

5. Complete the series 8, 7, 11, 12, 14, 17, 17, 22, (....)

Ans-20

6. Complete the series1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, (....)

Ans-343

7.A and B take part in 100 m race. A runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats him by 8 seconds. The speed of B is:

A. 5.15 kmph

B. 4.14 kmph

C. 4.25 kmph

D. 4.4 kmph

Ans-B

8.At a game of billiards, A can give B 15 points in 60 and A can give C to 20 points in 60. How many points can B give C in a game of 90?

A. 30 points

B. 20 points

C. 10 points

D. 12 points

Ans-C

9.Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 8

Ans-A

10. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:

A. 9000

B. 9400

C. 9600

D. 9800

Ans-C

11. A sum fetched a total simple interest of Rs. 4016.25 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. in 5 years. What is the sum?

A. Rs. 4462.50

B. Rs. 8032.50

C. Rs. 8900

D. Rs. 8925

Ans-D

12. Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?

A. Rs. 6400

B. Rs. 6500

C. Rs. 7200

D. Rs. 7500

Ans-A

13. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?

A. 2 : 3 : 4

B. 6 : 7 : 8

C. 6 : 8 : 9

D. None of these

Ans-A

14. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If the this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quanity of water to be further added is:

A. 20 litres

B. 30 litres

C. 40 litres

D. 60 litres

Ans-D

15. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:

A. 2 : 5

B. 3 : 5

C. 4 : 5

D. 6 : 7

Ans-C


Written Test Pattern
1 The train to Rotterdam ....... at 6 pm sharp.
a) exits
b) goes
c) departs
d) deserts

2 Have you heard that Mrs. Andrews ....... from the board of directors?
a) departed
b) abandoned
c) deserted
d) resigned

3 This exercise was very difficult and I finally ........
a) left
b) resigned
c) departed
d) gave up

4 Robert call me up ________________ Sunday
a) in
b) on
c) at
d) to

5 Mr. lin is______________ the faculty of our school
a) on
b) in
c) with
d) to

6 Why aren't you happy? I don't like the idea _______________
a) of getting up early
b) for getting up early
c) in getting up early
d) to get up early

7. ___panda & white tiger are in danger species ?
a) a
b) an
c) the
d) none

8 ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA
a) OLPA
b) KLMA
c) LLMA
d) KLLA

9 "@" means "<=", "D" means ">" and "$" means "=". If P@Q, R D S and Q $ R, then which of the following statement is definitely true?
a) R D P
b) P@R
c) P $ Q
d) ) P@S

10 If 'A' means '+' , 'D' means '/' , 'P' means '*' and 'S' means '-' then what will be the value of ___________
32A66D2S8P10=?
a) -20
b)-15
c) 15
d) 20

11 Are method overloading and method overriding ( w.r.t C++) same?
a). Both are same
b) Method overriding is available only in JAVA
c). Method overloading is not available in C++.
d). Both are different Answer: d. Both are different

12. A man goes to a park and see a girl who he recognised to be his relative. The girl was the daughter of his sisters husbands wife. How is the girl related to the man?
a). sister
b). niece
c). aunt
d). sister-in-law

13. Which of the following will initialize the new memory to 0 ?
a). malloc
b). free
c). new
d) .delete Answer: c. new

14. The keyword "inverse" is used in which of the following?
a). Class
b). Attribute
c). Relationship
d). All of the above.

15. Out of 10 white, 9 black and 7 red balls, in how many ways can we select one or more balls
a) 234
b) 52
c) 630
d) 879
Ans. (d)

16. A and B throw a dice. The probability that A s throw is not greater than B s is
a) 5/12
b) 7/12
c) 11/12
d) 5/36
Ans. (b)

17. Find the next number in the series 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, 31
a) 43
b) 33
c) 41
d) 45
Ans. (a)

18. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word "MANGO" would be
a) 82357
b) 89343
c) 84629
d) 82347
Ans. (d)

19. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS, then "PLAYER" should be
a) QMBZFS
b) QWMFDW
c) QUREXM
d) URESTI
Ans. (a)

20. Complete the sequence A, E, I, M, Q, U, _, _
a) B, F
b) Y, C
c) G, I
d) K, O
Ans. (b)

21. X s father s wife s father s granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
a) Son
b) Nephew
c) Uncle
d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)

22. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north, then finally travels 6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
a) 13km east
b) 13km northeast
c) 13km northwest
d) 13km west
Ans. (c)

23. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time?
a) 0.8
b) 0.48
c) 0.6
d) 0.14
Ans. (b)

24. Ravi's salary was reduced by 25%.Percentage increase to be effected to bring the salary to the original level is
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 33 1/3%
d) 30%
Ans. (c)

25. A and B can finish a piece of work in 20 days .B and C in 30 days and C and A in 40 days. In how many days will A alone finish the job
a) 48
b) 34 2/7
c) 44
d) 45
Ans. (a)

26. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
c) FCFS
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

27. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
a) Up linking
b) Down linking
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

28. The format specified "-%d" is used for which purpose in C
a) Left justifying a string
b) Right justifying a string
c) Left justifying an integer
d) Right justifying an integer
Ans. (c)

29. Select among the given choices the word or phrase for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The recent nuclear threat is the ________________of 12 years of terrorist attacks, which have inflicted on us more casualties both military and civilian than Iraq did on Kuwait
a) Culmination
b) Reflection
c) Dogma
d) Defiance

30. chose the lettered pair that express a relationship most similar to the relationship expressed in the capitalized pair HOBBLE ::WALK
a) Gallop ::Run
b) Stammer::Speak
c) Stumble::Fall
d) Sniff::Smell

31. Select among the given choices the word or phrase for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. While there is hope in the one-day game, where Indian team has at last cast aside the chains of________________thought, there is a very long journey to make in Test cricket
a) Delinquent
b) Delirious
c) Decadent
d) Disruptive

32. Choose the lettered pair that express relationship most similar to the relationship expressed in the capitalized pair. FRAYED: FABRIC
a) Thawed: Ice
b) Renovated: Building
c) Frazzled: Nerves
d) Watered: Lawn

33. Choose the lettered pair that expresses relationship most similar to the relationship expressed in the capitalized pair. LACHRYMOSE: TEARS
a) Effusive: requests
b) Ironic: jests
c) Morose: speeches
d) Verbose: words

34.Select among the given choices that is most nearly opposite word AUTONOMY
a) submissiveness
b) dependence
c) subordination
d) Slavery

35. Ashok bought 16kg of wheat at the rate of Rs 11.50 per kg and 14 kg wheat at rate of Rs 14.50 per kg. He mixed the two and sold the mixture at the rate of 13.50 kg. What is his gain in the transaction ?
a) Rs. 16
b) Rs. 18
c) Rs. 24
d) Rs. 28

36. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
22, 66, 132, 792, ?
a) 1584
b) 2376
c) 1246
d) 2674

37. If 24+35=28, 15+49=24, and 69+37=50 then 27+48=?
a) 27
b) 36
c) 48
d) 59

38. Which of the following is not associated with magnetic memory?
a) Sector
b) Pit
c) Track
d) All of these

39. Which of the following is not a codec
a) DiVX
b) EVid
c) FLAC
d) XviD

40. Which of the following Chipmaker has designed Athlon?
a) Intel
b) Free scale
c) AMD
d) IBM

41.Which of the following is a formatted input function in C
a) getchar()
b) getche()
c) gets()
d) None of these

42.42.Madhu Plumbing Company has two pipes Pipe A and Pipe B these pipes can fill a tank in 37 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The tank will be filled in just 30 minutes, if the pipe B is turned off after ___ .
a) 9 min
b) 15 min
c) 10 min
d) 5 min

43.In a management company 6 boys and 8 Girls can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 boys and 48 women can do the same in 2 days. Find the time taken by 15 Boys and 20 Girls in doing the same type of work?
a)7 days
b) 5 days
c) 6 days
d) 4 days

44.A hat vendor bought hats at Rs 5 per 3 hats. He sold them at Rs 10 per 4 hats. What was his profit percentage?
(a)25
(b)50
(c)30
(d)45

45.There are two boxes, one containing 32 black balls and other containing 31 red balls you are allowed to move the boxes at random so that when you choose the box at random and a ball at random from the chosen box, the probability of getting the black ball is maximized. This maximum probability is
(a).25
(b).51
(c).75
(d).50

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Operating Systems

Following are a few basic questions that cover the essentials of OS:

1. Explain the concept of Reentrancy.

It is a useful, memory-saving technique for multiprogrammed timesharing systems. A Reentrant Procedure is one in which multiple users can share a single copy of a program during the same period. Reentrancy has 2 key aspects: The program code cannot modify itself, and the local data for each user process must be stored separately. Thus, the permanent part is the code, and the temporary part is the pointer back to the calling program and local variables used by that program. Each execution instance is called activation. It executes the code in the permanent part, but has its own copy of local variables/parameters. The temporary part associated with each activation is the activation record. Generally, the activation record is kept on the stack.

Note : A reentrant procedure can be interrupted and called by an interrupting program, and still execute correctly on returning to the procedure.

2. Explain Belady's Anomaly.

Also called FIFO anomaly. Usually, on increasing the number of frames allocated to a process' virtual memory, the process execution is faster, because fewer page faults occur. Sometimes, the reverse happens, i.e., the execution time increases even when more frames are allocated to the process. This is Belady's Anomaly. This is true for certain page reference patterns.

3. What is a binary semaphore? What is its use?

A binary semaphore is one, which takes only 0 and 1 as values. They are used to implement mutual exclusion and synchronize concurrent processes.

4. What is thrashing?

It is a phenomenon in virtual memory schemes when the processor spends most of its time swapping pages, rather than executing instructions. This is due to an inordinate number of page faults.

5. List the Coffman's conditions that lead to a deadlock.

Mutual Exclusion: Only one process may use a critical resource at a time.

Hold & Wait: A process may be allocated some resources while waiting for others.

No Pre-emption: No resource can be forcible removed from a process holding it.

Circular Wait: A closed chain of processes exist such that each process holds at least one resource needed by another process in the chain.

6. What are short-, long- and medium-term scheduling?

Long term scheduler determines which programs are admitted to the system for processing. It controls the degree of multiprogramming. Once admitted, a job becomes a process.

Medium term scheduling is part of the swapping function. This relates to processes that are in a blocked or suspended state. They are swapped out of real-memory until they are ready to execute. The swapping-in decision is based on memory-management criteria.

Short term scheduler, also know as a dispatcher executes most frequently, and makes the finest-grained decision of which process should execute next. This scheduler is invoked whenever an event occurs. It may lead to interruption of one process by preemption.

7. What are turnaround time and response time?

Turnaround time is the interval between the submission of a job and its completion. Response time is the interval between submission of a request, and the first response to that request.

8. What are the typical elements of a process image?

User data: Modifiable part of user space. May include program data, user stack area, and programs that may be modified.

User program: The instructions to be executed.

System Stack: Each process has one or more LIFO stacks associated with it. Used to store parameters and calling addresses for procedure and system calls.

Process control Block (PCB): Info needed by the OS to control processes.

9. What is the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB)?

In a cached system, the base addresses of the last few referenced pages is maintained in registers called the TLB that aids in faster lookup. TLB contains those page-table entries that have been most recently used. Normally, each virtual memory reference causes 2 physical memory accesses-- one to fetch appropriate page-table entry, and one to fetch the desired data. Using TLB in-between, this is reduced to just one physical memory access in cases of TLB-hit.

10. What is the resident set and working set of a process?

Resident set is that portion of the process image that is actually in real-memory at a particular instant. Working set is that subset of resident set that is actually needed for execution. (Relate this to the variable-window size method for swapping techniques.)

11. When is a system in safe state?

The set of dispatchable processes is in a safe state if there exists at least one temporal order in which all processes can be run to completion without resulting in a deadlock.

12. What is cycle stealing?

We encounter cycle stealing in the context of Direct Memory Access (DMA). Either the DMA controller can use the data bus when the CPU does not need it, or it may force the CPU to temporarily suspend operation. The latter technique is called cycle stealing. Note that cycle stealing can be done only at specific break points in an instruction cycle.

13. What is meant by arm-stickiness?

If one or a few processes have a high access rate to data on one track of a storage disk, then they may monopolize the device by repeated requests to that track. This generally happens with most common device scheduling algorithms (LIFO, SSTF, C-SCAN, etc). High-density multisurface disks are more likely to be affected by this than low density ones.

14. What are the stipulations of C2 level security?

C2 level security provides for:

Discretionary Access Control

Identification and Authentication

Auditing

Resource reuse

15. What is busy waiting?

The repeated execution of a loop of code while waiting for an event to occur is called busy-waiting. The CPU is not engaged in any real productive activity during this period, and the process does not progress toward completion.

16. Explain the popular multiprocessor thread-scheduling strategies.

Load Sharing: Processes are not assigned to a particular processor. A global queue of threads is maintained. Each processor, when idle, selects a thread from this queue. Note that load balancing refers to a scheme where work is allocated to processors on a more permanent basis.

Gang Scheduling: A set of related threads is scheduled to run on a set of processors at the same time, on a 1-to-1 basis. Closely related threads / processes may be scheduled this way to reduce synchronization blocking, and minimize process switching. Group scheduling predated this strategy.

Dedicated processor assignment: Provides implicit scheduling defined by assignment of threads to processors. For the duration of program execution, each program is allocated a set of processors equal in number to the number of threads in the program. Processors are chosen from the available pool.

Dynamic scheduling: The number of thread in a program can be altered during the course of execution.

17. When does the condition 'rendezvous' arise?

In message passing, it is the condition in which, both, the sender and receiver are blocked until the message is delivered.

18. What is a trap and trapdoor?

Trapdoor is a secret undocumented entry point into a program used to grant access without normal methods of access authentication. A trap is a software interrupt, usually the result of an error condition.

19. What are local and global page replacements?

Local replacement means that an incoming page is brought in only to the relevant process' address space. Global replacement policy allows any page frame from any process to be replaced. The latter is applicable to variable partitions model only.

20. Define latency, transfer and seek time with respect to disk I/O.

Seek time is the time required to move the disk arm to the required track. Rotational delay or latency is the time it takes for the beginning of the required sector to reach the head. Sum of seek time (if any) and latency is the access time. Time taken to actually transfer a span of data is transfer time.

21. Describe the Buddy system of memory allocation.

Free memory is maintained in linked lists, each of equal sized blocks. Any such block is of size 2^k. When some memory is required by a process, the block size of next higher order is chosen, and broken into two. Note that the two such pieces differ in address only in their kth bit. Such pieces are called buddies. When any used block is freed, the OS checks to see if its buddy is also free. If so, it is rejoined, and put into the original free-block linked-list.

22. What is time-stamping?

It is a technique proposed by Lamport, used to order events in a distributed system without the use of clocks. This scheme is intended to order events consisting of the transmission of messages. Each system 'i' in the network maintains a counter Ci. Every time a system transmits a message, it increments its counter by 1 and attaches the time-stamp Ti to the message. When a message is received, the receiving system 'j' sets its counter Cj to 1 more than the maximum of its current value and the incoming time-stamp Ti. At each site, the ordering of messages is determined by the following rules: For messages x from site i and y from site j, x precedes y if one of the following conditions holds....(a) if Ti<Tj or (b) if Ti=Tj and i<j.

23. How are the wait/signal operations for monitor different from those for semaphores?

If a process in a monitor signal and no task is waiting on the condition variable, the signal is lost. So this allows easier program design. Whereas in semaphores, every operation affects the value of the semaphore, so the wait and signal operations should be perfectly balanced in the program.

24. In the context of memory management, what are placement and replacement algorithms?

Placement algorithms determine where in available real-memory to load a program. Common methods are first-fit, next-fit, best-fit. Replacement algorithms are used when memory is full, and one process (or part of a process) needs to be swapped out to accommodate a new program. The replacement algorithm determines which are the partitions to be swapped out.

25. In loading programs into memory, what is the difference between load-time dynamic linking and run-time dynamic linking?

For load-time dynamic linking: Load module to be loaded is read into memory. Any reference to a target external module causes that module to be loaded and the references are updated to a relative address from the start base address of the application module.

With run-time dynamic loading: Some of the linking is postponed until actual reference during execution. Then the correct module is loaded and linked.

26. What are demand- and pre-paging?

With demand paging, a page is brought into memory only when a location on that page is actually referenced during execution. With pre-paging, pages other than the one demanded by a page fault are brought in. The selection of such pages is done based on common access patterns, especially for secondary memory devices.

27. Paging a memory management function, while multiprogramming a processor management function, are the two interdependent?

Yes.

28. What is page cannibalizing?

Page swapping or page replacements are called page cannibalizing.

29. What has triggered the need for multitasking in PCs?

Increased speed and memory capacity of microprocessors together with the support fir virtual memory and

Growth of client server computing

30. What are the four layers that Windows NT have in order to achieve independence?

Hardware abstraction layer

Kernel

Subsystems

System Services.

31. What is SMP?

To achieve maximum efficiency and reliability a mode of operation known as symmetric multiprocessing is used. In essence, with SMP any process or threads can be assigned to any processor.

32. What are the key object oriented concepts used by Windows NT?

Encapsulation

Object class and instance

33. Is Windows NT a full blown object oriented operating system? Give reasons.

No Windows NT is not so, because its not implemented in object oriented language and the data structures reside within one executive component and are not represented as objects and it does not support object oriented capabilities .

34. What is a drawback of MVT?

It does not have the features like

ability to support multiple processors

virtual storage

source level debugging

35. What is process spawning?

When the OS at the explicit request of another process creates a process, this action is called process spawning.

36. How many jobs can be run concurrently on MVT?

15 jobs

37. List out some reasons for process termination.

Normal completion

Time limit exceeded

Memory unavailable

Bounds violation

Protection error

Arithmetic error

Time overrun

I/O failure

Invalid instruction

Privileged instruction

Data misuse

Operator or OS intervention

Parent termination.

38. What are the reasons for process suspension?

swapping

interactive user request

timing

parent process request

39. What is process migration?

It is the transfer of sufficient amount of the state of process from one machine to the target machine

40. What is mutant?

In Windows NT a mutant provides kernel mode or user mode mutual exclusion with the notion of ownership.

41. What is an idle thread?

The special thread a dispatcher will execute when no ready thread is found.

42. What is FtDisk?

It is a fault tolerance disk driver for Windows NT.

43. What are the possible threads a thread can have?

Ready

Standby

Running

Waiting

Transition

Terminated.

44. What are rings in Windows NT?

Windows NT uses protection mechanism called rings provides by the process to implement separation between the user mode and kernel mode.

45. What is Executive in Windows NT?

In Windows NT, executive refers to the operating system code that runs in kernel mode.

46. What are the sub-components of I/O manager in Windows NT?

Network redirector/ Server

Cache manager.

File systems

Network driver

Device driver

47. What are DDks? Name an operating system that includes this feature.

DDks are device driver kits, which are equivalent to SDKs for writing device drivers. Windows NT includes DDks.

48. What level of security does Windows NT meets?

C2 level security.


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